Forensic Psychology Midterm Exam Actual Questions And Detailed Verified Answers Graded +

What is forensic psychology? - correct answer Any application of psychological research, methods, theory, and practice to a task faced by the legal system What do forensic psychologist do? - correct answer-consultant to law enforcement -trial consultant -forensic evaluator/expert witness -present psychology to the courts -polygraph -profiling -hypnosis -psychological autopsy -false confessions -eyewitness testimony Differences between psychology and law? - correct answer Psychology is a science, based on scientific method, experimentation, and innovation; psychology is more impartial Law is based on past decisions, legal precedents; law is more adversial Aggravating or Mitigating Factors - correct answer Aggravating factors are any fact or circumstance that could increase the severity of a criminal act; examples are recidivism, lack of remorse, amount of harm to the victim Mitigating factors are any information or evidence that is presented to the court that might result in reduced charges or lesser sentencing McCleskey v. Kemp - correct answer The 1987 Supreme Court decision that upheld the constitutionality of the death penalty against charges that it violated the Fourteenth Amendment because minority defendants were more likely to receive the death penalty than were White defendants. Baldus Study - correct answer Study used in McClesky v. Kemp that showed black defendants were more likely to receive death penalty than white defendants, particularly when the victim was white Frye Test (1923) - correct answer Well recognized standards regarding principles or evidence for a particular field should determine the admissibility of expert testimony Federal Rules of Evidence (1975), Rule 702 - correct answer Expert testimony is admissible if scientific, technical or other specialized knowledge will assist the trier of fact to understand the evidence or to determine a fact in issue. Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals (1993) - correct answer US Supreme Court ruled that the Federal Rules of Evidence supercede Frye, at least in federal courts. Under Daubert, judges are the "gatekeepers" who must determine the scientific validity of research. Forensic Evaluator/Expert Witness - correct answer Expert witness: a person who is permitted to testify at a trial because of special knowledge or proficiency in a particular field that is relevant to the case. Fact witness: an individual, sometimes a clinical professional such as a forensic psychologist, who has personal knowledge of events pertaining to the case can testify as to things they have personally observed or witnessed. Hired Gun - correct answer An expert with a bias or who adapts his or her expert evidence to the requirements of the party that calls him/her as a witness. ... "The only reason an expert is permitted to give opinion evidence is because the facts that form the basis of the opinion are beyond the ken of the lay observer. Dual Relationships - correct answer any interaction other than the client -professional relationship (babysitting, bartering for services, going into business with client) Confidentiality - correct answer the act of holding information in confidence, not to be released to unauthorized individuals Polygraph - correct answer a machine, commonly used in attempts to detect lies, that measures several of the physiological responses accompanying emotion (such as perspiration and cardiovascular and breathing changes). Relevant-Irrelevant test - correct answer The first systematic questioning procedure developed for use with the polygraph machine. It used three types of questions, non arousing questions, arousing questions, relevant questions. Control Question Test - correct answer The questioning procedure most frequently used during polygraph exams. It measures relative arousal as the indicator of innocence or guilt. Guilty Knowledge Test - correct answer polygraph procedure involving testing people with knowledge only a guilty person could know Psychological Autopsies - correct answer Retrospective review of a deceased person's life within several months of the death to establish likely diagnoses at the time of death. Testamentary Capacity - correct answer The sanity (sound mind) requirement for a person to make a valid will. Workers Compensation - correct answer state programs that provide benefits to workers who suffer work-related injuries or illnesses, or to their survivors NASH - correct answer A job of medical examiners to classify a death as Natural, Accidental, Suicidal, or Homicidal Mass murder - correct answer the killing of four or more victims at one location on a single occasion Spree Murder - correct answer the killing of several people at different locations over several days Serial Murder - correct answer the killing of several victims in 3 or more separate events Organized Murder - correct answer premeditated and carefully planned, so little evidence is found at the scene Disorganized Murder - correct answer not planned and the criminals typically leave evidence such as fingerprints or blood at the scene of the murder Malingering - correct answer the defendant simulating a serious mental disorder in order to avoid a guilty verdict or a prison sentence Mens Rea (guilty mind) - correct answer Criminal intent, or a mental state of mind that is required, which leads to criminal liability for a particular crime. M'Naughten Rule - correct answer A rule for determining insanity that asks whether the defendant knew what he or she was doing or whether the defendant knew that what he or she was doing was wrong. Irresistible Impulse - correct answer An insanity defense in which the defendant's mental condition inhibited the ability to control his or her actions at the time of the offense, even though the defendant may have known the act was wrong. Durham Rule - correct answer A standard for insanity that asks whether the defendant's conduct was the product of a mental disease or defect. ALI standard - correct answer A definition of insanity proposed by the American Law Institute (ALI), which states, "A person is not responsible for criminal conduct if at the time of such conduct, as a result of mental disease or defect, he lacks substantial capacity either to appreciate the criminality [wrongfulness] of his conduct or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law." NGI (Not Guilty by Insanity) and GBMI (Guilty But Mentally Ill) - correct answer NGI is an affirmative defense, and GBMI is a verdict What states do not have an insanity defense? - correct answer Kansas, Montana, Idaho, and Utah The Hinckley Verdict - correct answer John Hinckley was charged with the attempted assassination of President Reagan and was not guilty by reason for insanity. Ultimate Issue Testimony - correct answer Expert testimony that specifically answers the legal question in a particular case. It answers the question that the trier of fact (a judge or jury) must decide. Competency/competency to stand trial - correct answer Refers to a person's ability to understand the nature and purpose of court proceedings Dusky v. United States - correct answer The judge questions the defendant on issues using as a template the test developed in Dusky v. United States, which determines that the defendant, first, understands the criminal process; and second, is able to function in that process, through consulting with his or her counsel in the preparation of a defense Barefoot v. Estelle (1983) - correct answer Thomas Barefoot was convicted on capitol murder of a police officer. A separate sentencing hearing before the same jury was held to see if the death penalty was imposed. The jury was asked to determine whether "there was a probability that the defendant would commit criminal acts of violence that would constitute a continuing threat to society" The prediction of future violence became a criterion for imposing the death penalty in Texas. Psychopathy - correct answer Repeated criminal activity and little to no guilt/remorse. Hare's Psychopathy Checklist (PCL-R) - correct answer Subjects are rated and scored on 20 variables. Scores on the PCL-R range from 0 to 40, with each item being scored either 0, 1, or 2. Scores of 30 and higher indicate the presence of psychopathy; scores of 21-29 indicate possible or partial psychopathy; and scores of 20 or lower indicate no psychopathy. Suicide Prediction - correct answer Depression; hopelessness is a more robust predictor Men who batter - correct answer Compared with non-batterers, men who batter tend to have experienced family violence in childhood, less education, lower incomes, lower self-esteem, and high rates of alcohol use and abuse; Witnessing violence has a stronger effect than being the target of violence; the combination is even stronger Baker Act: Involuntary Examination Criteria - correct answer-The person has refused voluntary examination or is unable to determine whether examination is necessary -Without care or treatment, the person is likely to suffer from neglect or refuse to care for him/herself; such neglect or refusal poses a real and present threat of substantial harm to his or her well-being -There is a substantial likelihood that without care or treatment the person will cause serious bodily harm to self or others in the near future, as evidenced by recent behavior Baker Act: Initiation of Involuntary Examination - correct answer-A court may enter an ex parte order based on sworn testimony, written or oral -A law enforcement officer must take a person who appears to meet the criteria for involuntary examination into custody and deliver or have him or her delivered to the nearest receiving facility -A physician, licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed mental health counselor or psychiatric nurse may execute a certificate stating that he/she has examined a person within 48 hours and finds that the person meets the criteria for involuntary examination