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Trauma Exam Questions and Answers Fully Solved Latest Version

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Trauma Exam Questions and Answers Fully Solved Latest Version A woman has a closed fracture to her midshaft tibia. You splinted the injury and are monitoring her during transport. During reassessment, she complains of rapidly increasing pain and you note that her leg is pale and cool. What should you suspect? A) The splint was applied too loosely B) She is developing compartment syndrome C) The fracture is accompanied by a dislocation D) She has another injury proximal to the tibia - AnswersB) She is developing compartment syndrome Compartment syndrome occurs when expanding, bleeding muscle increases pressure within the osteofascial compartment, the space in between the muscle and fascia. Because the fascia expands very little, increased compartment pressure can impair distal circulation (essentially, compartment syndrome is like an internal tourniquet). Compartment syndrome commonly develops in patients with injuries distal to the elbow and knee. This is because there are two bones in these areas and numerous muscle compartments. A hallmark sign of compartment syndrome is disproportionate pain; the patient's pain is worse that you would expect for the injury. As the condition develops, the extremity may become pale and cool to the touch, and the patient may complain of numbness and tingling (parasthesia) The skin over the injury may also become very tight. Eventually, the patient may lose all distal circulation, and potentially, their extremity. Prehospital treatment involves recognizing the developing signs and promptly transporting the patient to an appropriate facility. Treatment at the hospital involves a procedure called a fasciotomy, which is usually performed by a surgeon. A splint that is applied too tightly could also cause signs and symptoms similar to compartment syndrome, namely pallor; cool skin distal to the splint; and weak or absent distal pulses. Simply loosening the splint until distal circulation improves is often all that is needed. Fracture/dislocations occur at the joints, not the midshaft of a bone. There is no evidence to suggest that she has another injury proximal to the tibia; furthermore, the presence of one would not explain her symptoms. Following penetrating trauma to the abdomen, a 50-year-old woman has a large laceration with a loop of protruding bowel. How should you manage this injury? A) Carefully replace the bowel and apply an occlusive dressing. B) Apply a tight pressure dressing to control any external bleeding. C) Apply a dry, sterile dressing covered by an occlusive dressing. D) Apply a moist, sterile dressing covered by a dry, sterile dressing. - AnswersD) Apply a moist, sterile dressing covered by a dry, sterile dressing. Management of an open abdominal wound with an eviscerated bowel includes controlling any external bleeding, covering the exposed bowel with a moist, sterile dressing, and covering that with a dry, sterile dressing. Applying a dry dressing directly to the exposed bowel will cause the bowel to dry. You must never replace the exposed bowel into the abdominal cavity or apply pressure to the wound; doing so significantly increases the patient's risk for infection as well as further trauma. A young man fell and landed on his outstretched hand, resulting in pain and deformity to the left midshaft forearm. Distal circulation should be assessed at which of the following pulse

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Trauma Exam Questions and Answers Fully Solved Latest Version 2025-2026

A woman has a closed fracture to her midshaft tibia. You splinted the injury and are monitoring
her during transport. During reassessment, she complains of rapidly increasing pain and you
note that her leg is pale and cool. What should you suspect?

A) The splint was applied too loosely

B) She is developing compartment syndrome

C) The fracture is accompanied by a dislocation

D) She has another injury proximal to the tibia - AnswersB) She is developing compartment
syndrome

Compartment syndrome occurs when expanding, bleeding muscle increases pressure within the
osteofascial compartment, the space in between the muscle and fascia. Because the fascia
expands very little, increased compartment pressure can impair distal circulation (essentially,
compartment syndrome is like an internal tourniquet). Compartment syndrome commonly
develops in patients with injuries distal to the elbow and knee. This is because there are two
bones in these areas and numerous muscle compartments. A hallmark sign of compartment
syndrome is disproportionate pain; the patient's pain is worse that you would expect for the
injury. As the condition develops, the extremity may become pale and cool to the touch, and the
patient may complain of numbness and tingling (parasthesia) The skin over the injury may also
become very tight. Eventually, the patient may lose all distal circulation, and potentially, their
extremity. Prehospital treatment involves recognizing the developing signs and promptly
transporting the patient to an appropriate facility. Treatment at the hospital involves a
procedure called a fasciotomy, which is usually performed by a surgeon. A splint that is applied
too tightly could also cause signs and symptoms similar to compartment syndrome, namely
pallor; cool skin distal to the splint; and weak or absent distal pulses. Simply loosening the splint
until distal circulation improves is often all that is needed. Fracture/dislocations occur at the
joints, not the midshaft of a bone. There is no evidence to suggest that she has another injury
proximal to the tibia; furthermore, the presence of one would not explain her symptoms.

Following penetrating trauma to the abdomen, a 50-year-old woman has a large laceration with
a loop of protruding bowel. How should you manage this injury?

A) Carefully replace the bowel and apply an occlusive dressing.

B) Apply a tight pressure dressing to control any external bleeding.

C) Apply a dry, sterile dressing covered by an occlusive dressing.

D) Apply a moist, sterile dressing covered by a dry, sterile dressing. - AnswersD) Apply a moist,
sterile dressing covered by a dry, sterile dressing.

,Management of an open abdominal wound with an eviscerated bowel includes controlling any
external bleeding, covering the exposed bowel with a moist, sterile dressing, and covering that
with a dry, sterile dressing. Applying a dry dressing directly to the exposed bowel will cause the
bowel to dry. You must never replace the exposed bowel into the abdominal cavity or apply
pressure to the wound; doing so significantly increases the patient's risk for infection as well as
further trauma.

A young man fell and landed on his outstretched hand, resulting in pain and deformity to the left
midshaft forearm. Distal circulation should be assessed at which of the following pulse
locations?

A) Radial

B) Brachial

C) Pedal

D) Popliteal - AnswersA) Radial

The radius and ulna are the bones of the forearm. The radial pulse can be palpated on the lateral
aspect (thumb side) of the wrist and is the most distal pulse site relative to the injury. The
brachial pulse is located on the medial aspect of the arm. The popliteal pulse is located behind
the knee. The pedal (dorsalis pedis) pulse is located on top of the foot.

A trauma patient opens his eyes slightly and moans when the EMT applies a painful stimulus.
When the EMT palpates the patient's arm, he pulls it away. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
score is:

A) 7

B) 8

C) 9

D) 10 - AnswersB) 8

If a patient opens his or her eyes in response to pain, a score of 2 is assigned for eye opening. If
the patient moans or makes unintelligible sounds, a score of 2 is assigned for verbal response.
If the patient withdraws from pain, a score of 4 is assigned for motor response. In total, this
patient's GCS is 8, which indicates severe neurologic impairment.

A patient is unresponsive with snoring respirations. His arm is amputated just above the elbow
and is bleeding heavily. The EMT should:

A) open the patient's airway.

B) apply a proximal tourniquet.

,C) administer high-flow oxygen.

D) ventilate with a bag-mask device. - AnswersB) apply a proximal tourniquet.

Major hemorrhage kills patients faster than a compromised airway, so in this case, bleeding
control has the highest priority. The EMT should apply a proximal tourniquet and stop the
bleeding immediately. Attention can then turn to the patient's airway and breathing status. As
with any patient, treatment priorities must focus on injuries or conditions that will be the MOST
immediately fatal.

Assessment of a trauma patient reveals paradoxical movement to the left side of his chest. The
patient is conscious, but restless, and is experiencing severe pain. His breathing is rapid and
shallow and his pulse is rapid and weak. The EMT should:

A) ventilate the patient with a bag-mask device.

B) position the patient on the injured side and transport.

C) administer high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

D) stabilize the unstable chest wall with bulky dressings. - AnswersA) ventilate the patient with a
bag-mask device.

The patient in this scenario has a flail chest and inadequate ventilation (ie, rapid, shallow
[reduced tidal volume] breathing). A flail chest occurs when several ribs are fractured in more
than one place; the result is a free-floating section of ribs (flail segment) that collapses during
inhalation and bulges out during exhalation (paradoxical chest movement). As the flail segment
collapses, the lung is compressed and ventilation is impaired. Treatment should include positive
pressure ventilation and prompt transport. In the past, treatment included splinting of the flail
segment with bulky dressings; however, restricting chest wall movement is no longer
recommended and positive pressure ventilation is now preferred.

A man's legs were pinned by a steel girder for 5 hours before he was found. He is conscious and
alert with stable vital signs but cannot feel his legs. The EMT should anticipate that:

A) a surgeon will respond to the scene and amputate the man's legs.

B) he will be heavily sedated by paramedics to prevent further pain.

C) he will be immediately freed and rapidly transported to the hospital.

D) aavenous fluids and certain drugs may be given before he is freed. - AnswersD) intravenous
fluids and certain drugs may be given before he is freed.

Crush syndrome occurs when a part of the body is pinned by a heavy object for more than 4 to 6
hours, although it can occur earlier. Since circulation distal to the crushed part of the body is
minimal or absent, chemicals such as potassium and lactic acid can accumulate to dangerous

, levels. If the body part(s) is/are suddenly freed, these chemicals can be released into the
bloodstream, potentially causing a fatal cardiac dysrhythmia. For this reason, the patient may
need intravenous fluids and certain medications before being freed in order to prepare the body
for the onslaught of these chemicals. In some cases, especially if the patient is
hemodynamically unstable, a surgeon may respond to the scene to perform an emergency
amputation. However, in this case, the patient is stable. It would not be advisable to heavily
sedate the patient while he is still entrapped as this may cause airway compromise. Sedation
may be indicated, however, after the patient has been freed.

A man was stabbed in the lower right ribcage. He is diaphoretic; his pulse is rapid and weak; and
his respirations are regular and unlabored at 24 breaths/min. Which of the following injuries
should the EMT suspect?

A) Liver laceration

B) Ruptured diaphragm

C) Massive hemothorax

D) Tension pneumothorax - AnswersA) Liver laceration

Anatomically speaking, the liver is protected by the lower right ribcage. The lungs are not as low
in the thoracic cavity as some illustrations would suggest. The patient's unlabored breathing
tends to point away from a pneumothorax or hemothorax. Although a diaphragmatic injury
cannot be ruled out, one would expect a certain degree of respiratory distress. Based on the
anatomic location of the injury, in addition to the patient's clinical presentation, a liver laceration
is the most likely injury.

A hiker fell 25 feet from a ledge. There is obvious deformity to his thoracic spine and he has a
large laceration on his forehead. His BP is 60/40 mm Hg, pulse is 50 beats/min, and
respirations are 26 breaths/min. His face and chest are pale and cool, but his abdomen and
lower extremities are pink and warm. Which of the following BEST describes the
pathophysiology of these findings?

A) Loss of nervous system control over the systemic vasculature

B) Severe bleeding into the thoracic cavity from a ruptured aorta

C) Systemic vasoconstriction due to nervous system hyperactivity

D) Increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding within the brain - AnswersA) Loss of nervous
system control over the systemic vasculature

On the basis of the mechanism of injury and assessment findings, the EMT should suspect that
the patient is experiencing neurogenic shock. Neurogenic shock occurs when an injury or
condition (in this case, a spinal injury) interrupts the nervous system's control over the diameter

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