2025/2026 WGU D115 ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OA
COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS.
es have two copies of the x chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected x to a daughter or son. furthermore, a daughter may not
show signs of the disease because she has the other x (the only x the
father can give to a female) to cancel it out.answerswhich type of risk
is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - ✔✔✔✔-
relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of
disease.answerswhat are the empirical risks for most multifactorial
diseases based on? - ✔✔✔✔-many factors from lifestyle to genetics
affect multifactorial diseases. observation and evaluation of each case
individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.answerswhat refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. -
✔✔✔✔-the imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene
pair.answerswhat is the primary reason that some older adults have
impaired inflammation and wound healing? - ✔✔✔✔-the underlying
chronic illness exists.
a generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes
the body's reserves to fight against illness.answerswhich cells are the
,body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - ✔✔✔✔-eosinophils
are the body's primary defense against parasites.answerswhat
phagocytes bacteria? - ✔✔✔✔-macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.answerswhat is the first response to a foreign
pathogen? - ✔✔✔✔-helper t cellsanswerswhich characteristic is the
most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? - ✔✔✔✔-immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to
recognize something foreign.answershow are erythrocytes destroyed
when mismatched blood is administered, causing an abo
incompatibility? - ✔✔✔✔-the complement pathway is activated in
response to blood incompatibility.answerswhat is the hypersensitivity
reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - ✔✔✔✔-an immediate (type i)
hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.answerswhich four
infections are considered fungal infections? - ✔✔✔✔-infection with a
fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas,
which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and
athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.answerswhen is the earliest after sexual transmission of
hiv that lab results can detect infection? - ✔✔✔✔-lab testing can detect
hiv rna 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas hiv antibody
testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. repeat
testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing
too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.answerswhat is a characteristic of exotoxins? - ✔✔✔✔-
exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.answerswhich dietary
lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - ✔✔✔✔-the results of decreased fat
consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a
decreased risk of developing colon cancer.answerswhich cancer is an
individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely
to develop? - ✔✔✔✔-asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of
lung and lung lining cancer.answerswhich statement is true regarding
ultraviolet (uv) light?
the degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. -
✔✔✔✔-uv light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell
,carcinoma when the uvb rays hit dna strands, causing thymine base
pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers.
these thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.answerswhich
cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - ✔✔✔✔-
exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer
cells.answerslow healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk
factor in blood pressure control and has been shown to have adverse
effects on health outcomes.
true or false - ✔✔✔✔-true
by providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level,
improved health outcomes may result.answersone of the goals of the
national action plan to improve health literacy is to incorporate
research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a manner consistent with an
individual's literacy level.
true or false - ✔✔✔✔-true
ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment
plan is crucial for understanding and compliance.answerswhat is a red
flag for low healthcare literacy? - ✔✔✔✔-low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including
medication instructions. ensuring the patient fully understands all
instructions is critical for understanding.answersamniocentesis is
recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
which health history would result in an amniocentesis
recommendation? - ✔✔✔✔-those who have a family history of genetic
disordersanswersstudies have identified several genes that play a role
in the prevention of obesity.
what do these genes influence? - ✔✔✔✔-regulation of appetite-research
has shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the
regulation of appetite.answerswhich concept is data reporting that
sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black americans an
, which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than
females? - ✔✔✔✔-sex-linked recessive. since males only have one x
and one y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be
expressed.answersin which two conditions are chromosomal
abnormalities the leading known cause? - ✔✔✔✔-intellectual disability
and fetal miscarriage. chromosome abnormalities are the leading
known cause of intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage.answerswhat are three examples of prenatal diagnostic
studies? - ✔✔✔✔-chorionic villus sampling (cvs), amniocentesis, and
preimplantation genetic testing (pgt) are examples of prenatal
diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. cvs is a form of genetic
testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. an amniocentesis
is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually
performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of
pregnancy. pgt is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.answerswhich genetic disorder is characterized by the
presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a normal
complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? -
✔✔✔✔-cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused
by a dna deletion. this term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.answershow
can an x-linked recessive disease skip generations? - ✔✔✔✔-the
disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
since femal
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OA
COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS.
es have two copies of the x chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected x to a daughter or son. furthermore, a daughter may not
show signs of the disease because she has the other x (the only x the
father can give to a female) to cancel it out.answerswhich type of risk
is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - ✔✔✔✔-
relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of
disease.answerswhat are the empirical risks for most multifactorial
diseases based on? - ✔✔✔✔-many factors from lifestyle to genetics
affect multifactorial diseases. observation and evaluation of each case
individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.answerswhat refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. -
✔✔✔✔-the imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene
pair.answerswhat is the primary reason that some older adults have
impaired inflammation and wound healing? - ✔✔✔✔-the underlying
chronic illness exists.
a generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes
the body's reserves to fight against illness.answerswhich cells are the
,body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - ✔✔✔✔-eosinophils
are the body's primary defense against parasites.answerswhat
phagocytes bacteria? - ✔✔✔✔-macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.answerswhat is the first response to a foreign
pathogen? - ✔✔✔✔-helper t cellsanswerswhich characteristic is the
most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? - ✔✔✔✔-immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to
recognize something foreign.answershow are erythrocytes destroyed
when mismatched blood is administered, causing an abo
incompatibility? - ✔✔✔✔-the complement pathway is activated in
response to blood incompatibility.answerswhat is the hypersensitivity
reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - ✔✔✔✔-an immediate (type i)
hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.answerswhich four
infections are considered fungal infections? - ✔✔✔✔-infection with a
fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas,
which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and
athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and
aspergillus.answerswhen is the earliest after sexual transmission of
hiv that lab results can detect infection? - ✔✔✔✔-lab testing can detect
hiv rna 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas hiv antibody
testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. repeat
testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing
too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.answerswhat is a characteristic of exotoxins? - ✔✔✔✔-
exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.answerswhich dietary
lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - ✔✔✔✔-the results of decreased fat
consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a
decreased risk of developing colon cancer.answerswhich cancer is an
individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely
to develop? - ✔✔✔✔-asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of
lung and lung lining cancer.answerswhich statement is true regarding
ultraviolet (uv) light?
the degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. -
✔✔✔✔-uv light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell
,carcinoma when the uvb rays hit dna strands, causing thymine base
pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers.
these thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.answerswhich
cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - ✔✔✔✔-
exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer
cells.answerslow healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk
factor in blood pressure control and has been shown to have adverse
effects on health outcomes.
true or false - ✔✔✔✔-true
by providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level,
improved health outcomes may result.answersone of the goals of the
national action plan to improve health literacy is to incorporate
research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a manner consistent with an
individual's literacy level.
true or false - ✔✔✔✔-true
ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment
plan is crucial for understanding and compliance.answerswhat is a red
flag for low healthcare literacy? - ✔✔✔✔-low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including
medication instructions. ensuring the patient fully understands all
instructions is critical for understanding.answersamniocentesis is
recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
which health history would result in an amniocentesis
recommendation? - ✔✔✔✔-those who have a family history of genetic
disordersanswersstudies have identified several genes that play a role
in the prevention of obesity.
what do these genes influence? - ✔✔✔✔-regulation of appetite-research
has shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the
regulation of appetite.answerswhich concept is data reporting that
sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black americans an
, which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than
females? - ✔✔✔✔-sex-linked recessive. since males only have one x
and one y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be
expressed.answersin which two conditions are chromosomal
abnormalities the leading known cause? - ✔✔✔✔-intellectual disability
and fetal miscarriage. chromosome abnormalities are the leading
known cause of intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage.answerswhat are three examples of prenatal diagnostic
studies? - ✔✔✔✔-chorionic villus sampling (cvs), amniocentesis, and
preimplantation genetic testing (pgt) are examples of prenatal
diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. cvs is a form of genetic
testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. an amniocentesis
is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually
performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of
pregnancy. pgt is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.answerswhich genetic disorder is characterized by the
presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a normal
complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? -
✔✔✔✔-cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused
by a dna deletion. this term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.answershow
can an x-linked recessive disease skip generations? - ✔✔✔✔-the
disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
since femal
