First Aid USMLE Step 1:Hematology &
Oncology
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Erythrocytes carry O2 to ____ and CO2 to ______ - answer:-*Tissues, Lungs*
True or false, erythrocytes are biconcave and anucleate - answer:-True
What is the lifespan of an erythrocyte and what is its energy source? - answer:-Glucose
(90% used in glycolysis, 10% used in HMP shunt).
Lifespan - 120 days
What does the Cl−/HCO3− anti porter allow RBCs to do? - answer:-Allows export of
HCO3− and transport of CO2 from the periphery to the lungs for elimination
What is a reticulocyte? - answer:-Immature RBC; reflects erythroid proliferation.
What is Erythrocytosis, anisocytosis and poikilocytosis? - answer:-Erythrocytosis =
polycythemia = hematocrit.
Anisocytosis = varying sizes.
Poikilocytosis = varying shapes.
The small cytoplasmic fragment of a thrombocyte (platelet) is derived from what? What
is its lifespan? - answer:-Megakaryocytic, 8-10 days
What other protein do platelets interact with to form the platelet plug after endothelial
cell injury? - answer:-Fibrinogen
What causes petechiae? - answer:-Thrombocytopenia or ↓platelet function
What do dense granules and alpha granules in platelets contain? - answer:-Dense
granules: ADP, Ca2⁺
Alpha granules: vWF, fibrinogen, fibronectin
Approx. 1/3rd of platelets are stored where? - answer:-In the spleen
What is the fibrinogen receptor? - answer:-GpIIb/IIIa
What is the vWF receptor? - answer:-GpIb
What are my three granulocytes? - answer:-Neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil
List the WBC differential for ranges - answer:-Neutrophils (54-62%)
Lymphocytes (25-33%)
Monocytes (3-7%)
Eosinophils (1-3%)
,First Aid USMLE Step 1:Hematology &
Oncology
Save
Basophils (0-0.75%)
What do the specific granules in neutrophils contain? - answer:-Specific granules
contain ALP, collagenase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin
What do the azurophilic granules in neutrophils contain? - answer:-Azurophilic granules
(lysosomes) contain proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, and β-
glucuronidase.
In what deficiency do we see hypersegmented neutrophils? - answer:-Vitamin B12/
folate deficiency.
What are band cells? - answer:-Immature neutrophils- reflect states of myeloid
proliferation (bacterial infections, CML).
What are some neutrophil chemotactic agents? - answer:-C5a, IL-8, LTB4, kallikrein,
platelet-activating factor.
What is a plasma cell cancer? - answer:-Multiple myeloma
For T cells, CD8 recognizes MHC _ while CD4 recognizes MHC _ ; also what does
CD28 do? - answer:-I, II,
CD28 (costimulatory signal) necessary for T-cell activation.
What are dendritic cells called in the skin? What type of MHC do they bear? - answer:-
Langerhans cell in the skin; MHC II, and Fc receptors
Differentiates into Macrophages in tissues - answer:-What is a monocyte
Lipid A binds to what on macrophages to initate septic shock? - answer:-Lipid A from
bacterial LPS binds CD14 on
macrophages to initiate septic shock.
What cytokine can activate Macrophages? - answer:-γ-interferon
What are the causes of eosinophilia? - answer:-Neoplasia
Asthma
Allergic processes
Chronic adrenal insuficiency Parasites (invasive)
What are the two main products of the antihelminthic eosinophil? - answer:-Produces
histaminase and major basic protein (MBP, a helminthotoxin).
,First Aid USMLE Step 1:Hematology &
Oncology
Save
Basophilia is a sign of what? - answer:-Myeloproliferative disease, particularly CML
What are the 3 main products of basophils? - answer:-Heparin (anticoagulant) and
Histamine (vasodilator).
Leukotrienes synthesized on demand
Describe IgE mediated degranulation of a Mast cell - answer:-Mast cells can bind the Fc
portion of IgE to membrane. IgE cross-links upon antigen binding, causing
degranulation, which releases histamine, heparin, tryptase, eosinophil chemotactic
factors.
What prevents mast cell degranulation? - answer:-Cromolyn sodium prevents mast cell
degranulation (used for asthma prophylaxis).
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is implicated with Mast cells? - answer:-Involved
in type I hypersensitivity reactions
Where Fetal erythropoiesis occurs in these ranges?
3-8wks
6wks-birth
10-28 wks
18-adult - answer:-Yolk sac: 3-8wks
Liver: 6wks-birth
Spleen: 10-28 wks
Bone marrow: 18-adult
What type of antibodies are found in A blood type plasma? - answer:-IgM anti B
What type of antibodies are found in B blood type plasma? - answer:-IgM anti A
What type of antibodies are found in AB blood type plasma? - answer:-None - universal
donor of PLASMA; not blood because plasma has no antibodies but RBCs have both A
and B antigen, universal recipient of RBCs
What type of antibodies are found in O blood type plasma? - answer:-A and B --
Universal donor of RBCs, not plasma, because O blood has no antigen on surface,
universal recipient of plasma
What type of antibodies are found in Rh⁺ blood type plasma? - answer:-No anti-D
universal recipient of RBC
What type of antibodies are found in Rh⁻ blood type plasma? - answer:-IgG anti D
, First Aid USMLE Step 1:Hematology &
Oncology
Save
What is the treatment for Rh⁻ mothers? - answer:-Treat Rh- mothers with Rh(D)
immunoglobulin (RÓoGAM) after each pregnancy to prevent anti-D IgG formation.
Rh(D) wipes out fetal RBCs that have the D Antigen before the mother's immune
system can react.
True or False, IgM and IgG both cross the placenta. - answer:-IgM does not cross
placenta; IgG does cross placenta.
What is hemolytic disease of newborn? - answer:-Rh− mothers exposed to fetal Rh+
blood (often during delivery) may make anti-D IgG. In
subsequent pregnancies, anti-D IgG crosses the placenta hemolytic disease of the
newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis) in the next fetus that is Rh+.
During which trimester is RhoGAM administered? - answer:-Prevented by
administration of RhoGAM to Rh− pregnant women during third trimester, which
prevents maternal anti-Rh IgG production.
Rh− mothers have anti-D IgG only if previously exposed to Rh+ blood.
ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn - answer:-Usually occur in type O mother with a
type A or B fetus. Can occur in the first pregnancy. neonate present with jaundice within
24hrs of birth
Tx phototherapy or transfusion exchange
What are my four main types of anticoagulants that target factor X? - answer:-1. LMWH
(greatest efficacy)
2. heparin
3. direct Xa inhibitors (apixaban, rivaroxaban)
fondaparinux
What are the 3 effects of bradykinin in the kinin cascade? - answer:-1. ↑ Vasodilation
2. ↑ Permeability
3. ↑ Pain
What enzyme activates bradykinin? - answer:-Kallikrein
What is HMWK? - answer:-High molecular weight kininogen (HMWK or HK) is a
circulating plasma protein initiates in blood coagulation, and in the generation of the
vasodilator bradykinin via the Kallikrein-kinin system.
What are my three main types of anticoagulants that target thrombin (IIa)? - answer:-1.
heparin (greatest efficacy)
2. LMWH (dalteparin, enoxaparin)
Oncology
Save
Erythrocytes carry O2 to ____ and CO2 to ______ - answer:-*Tissues, Lungs*
True or false, erythrocytes are biconcave and anucleate - answer:-True
What is the lifespan of an erythrocyte and what is its energy source? - answer:-Glucose
(90% used in glycolysis, 10% used in HMP shunt).
Lifespan - 120 days
What does the Cl−/HCO3− anti porter allow RBCs to do? - answer:-Allows export of
HCO3− and transport of CO2 from the periphery to the lungs for elimination
What is a reticulocyte? - answer:-Immature RBC; reflects erythroid proliferation.
What is Erythrocytosis, anisocytosis and poikilocytosis? - answer:-Erythrocytosis =
polycythemia = hematocrit.
Anisocytosis = varying sizes.
Poikilocytosis = varying shapes.
The small cytoplasmic fragment of a thrombocyte (platelet) is derived from what? What
is its lifespan? - answer:-Megakaryocytic, 8-10 days
What other protein do platelets interact with to form the platelet plug after endothelial
cell injury? - answer:-Fibrinogen
What causes petechiae? - answer:-Thrombocytopenia or ↓platelet function
What do dense granules and alpha granules in platelets contain? - answer:-Dense
granules: ADP, Ca2⁺
Alpha granules: vWF, fibrinogen, fibronectin
Approx. 1/3rd of platelets are stored where? - answer:-In the spleen
What is the fibrinogen receptor? - answer:-GpIIb/IIIa
What is the vWF receptor? - answer:-GpIb
What are my three granulocytes? - answer:-Neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil
List the WBC differential for ranges - answer:-Neutrophils (54-62%)
Lymphocytes (25-33%)
Monocytes (3-7%)
Eosinophils (1-3%)
,First Aid USMLE Step 1:Hematology &
Oncology
Save
Basophils (0-0.75%)
What do the specific granules in neutrophils contain? - answer:-Specific granules
contain ALP, collagenase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin
What do the azurophilic granules in neutrophils contain? - answer:-Azurophilic granules
(lysosomes) contain proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, and β-
glucuronidase.
In what deficiency do we see hypersegmented neutrophils? - answer:-Vitamin B12/
folate deficiency.
What are band cells? - answer:-Immature neutrophils- reflect states of myeloid
proliferation (bacterial infections, CML).
What are some neutrophil chemotactic agents? - answer:-C5a, IL-8, LTB4, kallikrein,
platelet-activating factor.
What is a plasma cell cancer? - answer:-Multiple myeloma
For T cells, CD8 recognizes MHC _ while CD4 recognizes MHC _ ; also what does
CD28 do? - answer:-I, II,
CD28 (costimulatory signal) necessary for T-cell activation.
What are dendritic cells called in the skin? What type of MHC do they bear? - answer:-
Langerhans cell in the skin; MHC II, and Fc receptors
Differentiates into Macrophages in tissues - answer:-What is a monocyte
Lipid A binds to what on macrophages to initate septic shock? - answer:-Lipid A from
bacterial LPS binds CD14 on
macrophages to initiate septic shock.
What cytokine can activate Macrophages? - answer:-γ-interferon
What are the causes of eosinophilia? - answer:-Neoplasia
Asthma
Allergic processes
Chronic adrenal insuficiency Parasites (invasive)
What are the two main products of the antihelminthic eosinophil? - answer:-Produces
histaminase and major basic protein (MBP, a helminthotoxin).
,First Aid USMLE Step 1:Hematology &
Oncology
Save
Basophilia is a sign of what? - answer:-Myeloproliferative disease, particularly CML
What are the 3 main products of basophils? - answer:-Heparin (anticoagulant) and
Histamine (vasodilator).
Leukotrienes synthesized on demand
Describe IgE mediated degranulation of a Mast cell - answer:-Mast cells can bind the Fc
portion of IgE to membrane. IgE cross-links upon antigen binding, causing
degranulation, which releases histamine, heparin, tryptase, eosinophil chemotactic
factors.
What prevents mast cell degranulation? - answer:-Cromolyn sodium prevents mast cell
degranulation (used for asthma prophylaxis).
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is implicated with Mast cells? - answer:-Involved
in type I hypersensitivity reactions
Where Fetal erythropoiesis occurs in these ranges?
3-8wks
6wks-birth
10-28 wks
18-adult - answer:-Yolk sac: 3-8wks
Liver: 6wks-birth
Spleen: 10-28 wks
Bone marrow: 18-adult
What type of antibodies are found in A blood type plasma? - answer:-IgM anti B
What type of antibodies are found in B blood type plasma? - answer:-IgM anti A
What type of antibodies are found in AB blood type plasma? - answer:-None - universal
donor of PLASMA; not blood because plasma has no antibodies but RBCs have both A
and B antigen, universal recipient of RBCs
What type of antibodies are found in O blood type plasma? - answer:-A and B --
Universal donor of RBCs, not plasma, because O blood has no antigen on surface,
universal recipient of plasma
What type of antibodies are found in Rh⁺ blood type plasma? - answer:-No anti-D
universal recipient of RBC
What type of antibodies are found in Rh⁻ blood type plasma? - answer:-IgG anti D
, First Aid USMLE Step 1:Hematology &
Oncology
Save
What is the treatment for Rh⁻ mothers? - answer:-Treat Rh- mothers with Rh(D)
immunoglobulin (RÓoGAM) after each pregnancy to prevent anti-D IgG formation.
Rh(D) wipes out fetal RBCs that have the D Antigen before the mother's immune
system can react.
True or False, IgM and IgG both cross the placenta. - answer:-IgM does not cross
placenta; IgG does cross placenta.
What is hemolytic disease of newborn? - answer:-Rh− mothers exposed to fetal Rh+
blood (often during delivery) may make anti-D IgG. In
subsequent pregnancies, anti-D IgG crosses the placenta hemolytic disease of the
newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis) in the next fetus that is Rh+.
During which trimester is RhoGAM administered? - answer:-Prevented by
administration of RhoGAM to Rh− pregnant women during third trimester, which
prevents maternal anti-Rh IgG production.
Rh− mothers have anti-D IgG only if previously exposed to Rh+ blood.
ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn - answer:-Usually occur in type O mother with a
type A or B fetus. Can occur in the first pregnancy. neonate present with jaundice within
24hrs of birth
Tx phototherapy or transfusion exchange
What are my four main types of anticoagulants that target factor X? - answer:-1. LMWH
(greatest efficacy)
2. heparin
3. direct Xa inhibitors (apixaban, rivaroxaban)
fondaparinux
What are the 3 effects of bradykinin in the kinin cascade? - answer:-1. ↑ Vasodilation
2. ↑ Permeability
3. ↑ Pain
What enzyme activates bradykinin? - answer:-Kallikrein
What is HMWK? - answer:-High molecular weight kininogen (HMWK or HK) is a
circulating plasma protein initiates in blood coagulation, and in the generation of the
vasodilator bradykinin via the Kallikrein-kinin system.
What are my three main types of anticoagulants that target thrombin (IIa)? - answer:-1.
heparin (greatest efficacy)
2. LMWH (dalteparin, enoxaparin)
