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Ptcb Cspt Final Exam Study Guide 2025/2026 Accurate Questions And Correct Detailed Answers With Rationales || 100% Guaranteed Pass Latest Version

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PTCB CSPT FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS LATEST VERSION 1. Central sterile and processing technologist - ANSWER A individual that is dependable, reliable, and responsible for providing services to enhance the quality of patient care. Responsible for receiving, cleaning, decontaminating, assembling, disinfecting, sterilizing, reusable medical and surgical devices. 2. John perkins - ANSWER a scientist employed by amsco observed that sterilization is everyone's business but no one's responsibility 3. Amsco - ANSWER american sterilizer company started in 1933 which later became steris corporation 4. The year that The Central Service and Sterile Processing Department was - ANSWER in 1982 5. Decontamination area - ANSWER Where soiled items are received and cleaned. 6. Preparation area - ANSWER Where cleaned items are inspected, assembled, and packaged. 7. Sterilization area - ANSWER Where terminal sterilization is performed. 8. Sterilization storage area - ANSWER Where sterile items are stored until needed. 9. Sterile stores - ANSWER Where items for patient care from outside manufacturers are stored. 10. Case cart area - ANSWER where sterile supplies are kept and picked for sugical cases ( trays and sterile items from outside the manufacturers) 11. Dispatch - ANSWER where sterile and clean items are dispensed 12. Loaner area - ANSWER for the receipt and return of instruments borrowed for specialty procedures 13. Patient care equipment clean up area - ANSWER The area in SPD where patient care equipment is cleaned and disinfected. There might be a separate area for this purpose, and there is usually a separate area for storage of cleaned and disinfected equipment. 14. Patient harmed by compounded sterile preparations - ANSWER microbial contamination, excessive bacterial endotoxins, variability in strength of ingredients, chemical/physical contaminants, inappropriate quality of ingredients 15. Non sterile compounding examples - ANSWER products used orally, topically on skin or to fill gaps when not commercially available 16. Aseptic - ANSWER state of being free from microbial contamination 17. Sterile compounded items - ANSWER injections(iv, etc) ophthalmic drops, aqueous bronchial or nasal inhalations, baths for live organs, tissue implants, irrigation for wounds or cavities 18. Non hazardous hoods - ANSWER Laminar airflow workbench (LAFW) compounding containment isolator (CAI) 19. Hazardous hoods - ANSWER biological safety cabinet (BSC) compounding aseptic containment isolator (CACI) 20. Primary Engineering Control (PEC) - ANSWER a device or room that provides an ISO Class 5 environment for the exposure of critical sites when compounding CSPs. Such devices include, but may not be limited to, laminar airflow workbenches (LAFWs), biological safety cabinets (BSCs), compounding aseptic isolators (CAIs), and compounding aseptic containment isolators (CACIs). 21. Secondary engineering controls - ANSWER the ante area and buffer area 22. Buffer or Clean Room - ANSWER ISO 7 23. Ante Room ISO class - ANSWER ISO 8, unless provides access to negative pressure room then ISO 7 24. Handling Spills of hazardous meds - ANSWER double chemotherapy gloves gown eye/face for large spills 25. Chemotherapy Spill Mat - ANSWER asorbable mat placed on workbench dispose in chemotherapy sharps container 26. Chemotherapy Sharps Container - ANSWER gloves sterile gown CSTD alcohol pads syringes drug vials **bright yellow** 27. Chemotherapy Tube Preparation - ANSWER prep IV tube before placing drug in IV bag 28. Chemotherapy Syringe filing rule - ANSWER don't fill with more than 75% medication 29. Chemotherapy Spill Kit - ANSWER safety glasses chemo gown chemo gloves face mask biohazard bag absorbent towels or mat dustpan and broom clean-up instructions puncture-resistant container sharps container 30. Chemotherapy Spill Cleanup Procedure - ANSWER clear area place warning signs around spill check SDS for procedure grab spill kit and put of ppe place towels on liquid or use dust pan throw towels in chemotherapy bag use appropriate cleaner place all PPE and items in biohazard bag place biohazard bag in chemo sharps container fill out incident report 31. Hazardous drug Group 1 - ANSWER Antineoplastic drug-many may pose reproductive risk 32. Hazardous Group 2 - ANSWER non-antineoplastic drug-some may pose reproductive risk 33. Hazardous Group 3 - ANSWER Drugs that primarily pose a reproductive risk 34. Containment primary engineering control (C-PEC) - ANSWER ventilated device designed and operated to minimize work and environmental exposures to hazardous drug 35. Class II BSC type A2, B1, B2 - ANSWER acceptable for USP 800 HD 36. Class II BSC type A1 - ANSWER not acceptable for USP 800 HD 37. Containment secondary engineering control (C-SEC) - ANSWER the room with fixed walls in which the C-PEC is placed; it incorporates specific design and operational parameters required to contain the potential hazard within the compounding room 38. Removal of PPE of Hazardous Compounding - ANSWER outer gloves turned inside out face shield gown-turned inside out hair coverings, face mask, shoe coverings from least contaminated to most inner gloves all disposed in HD disposal container 39. Chemotherapy gowns - ANSWER impermeable changed every 2-3 hours unless spill 40. HD Transport Bags - ANSWER never placed in C-PEC 41. Decontamination, deactivation, an cleaning-HD - ANSWER cleaning or deactivating HD with elimination type detergent 42. Hazardous Waste Misc Meds - ANSWER warfarin, nicotine, dalfampridine, physostigmine 43. Pneumatic tube system meds not allowed - ANSWER expensive do not shake larger than 1000ml 44. Digoxin mechanism of action - ANSWER increases the force of contraction of the muscle of the heart by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme (ATPase) that controls movement of calcium, sodium, and potassium into heart muscle. Calcium controls the force of contraction. 45. Laminar flow hoods must be certified every ___ months. - ANSWER 12 46. laminar flow hoods must be turned on _____ before use - ANSWER 30 minutes 47. 60/100 = x% - ANSWER 60 48. 1/5 = x% - ANSWER 20 49. 3/8 = x% - ANSWER 38 50. 2/50 = x% - ANSWER 4 51. The three phases of LTHP sterilization. - ANSWER Conditioning, sterilization, aeration 52. The phase in a LTHP cycle where the reservoir fills with sterilant and a vacuum pulse removes air and moisture from the chamber. When the set point is reached, the load is tested for moisture content and then dry air is introduced. - ANSWER Conditioning phase 53. The phase in a LTHP cycle consisting of four pulses. A vacuum pulled to a set point, sterilant vapor drawn into chamber, exposure period, filtered air introduced to a set point, another exposure, then a deep vacuum. - ANSWER Sterilization phase 54. The phase in a LTHP cycle where the system pulls a vacuum and continues to evacuate the chamber for the programmed time until the pressure is at an atmospheric level. - ANSWER Aeration phase 55. CIs change from red to yellow for ___ sterilization, and purple to yellow for ___ sterilization. - ANSWER LTGP, LTHP 56. A low-temperature sterilization method for heat, pressure, and moisture sensitive items. A form of oxygen with an extra atom to form O3. Electricity is added to create a higher energy level, giving it an oxidative action. - ANSWER Ozone 57. The advantages of ___ sterilization are low cost, no toxic fumes or hazardous byproducts, no disposal costs, low cost per cubic foot of space, and aeration is unnecessary because it uses only oxygen, water, and electricity. The disadvantages are limited penetration and metal corrosion. - ANSWER Ozone 58. The three parameters of ozone sterilization. - ANSWER Time, temperature, ozone concentration 59. Ozone sterilization cycles run at ___°F for ___ hours. - ANSWER 68-79, 4 60. Incubation of BIs for ozone are at ___°F for ___ hours at the first reading and ___ hours at the second. - ANSWER 131-140, 24, 48 61. To combine chemically with oxygen. The process used by LTHP, ozone, and dry heat sterilization to kill microorganisms. - ANSWER Oxidation 62. The sterilization method used mainly for sterilizing powders, oils, and petroleum-based items. It is not widely used otherwise because of it's high temperatures and long exposure times, which can damage devices and packaging materials. - ANSWER Dry heat 63. The two types of dry heat sterilizers. - ANSWER Gravity, convection 64. The sterilization process using gravity to lower heat from the top of the sterilizer to the bottom. Produces greater temperature variations within the chamber. - ANSWER Gravity-type dry heat 65. The sterilization process using a fan to move heat around the chamber, providing for even heating. - ANSWER Convection-type dry heat 66. The packaging material of choice for ___ sterilization is aluminum foil. Glass and metal containers can also be used. - ANSWER Dry heat 67. An automated, table-top, microcomputer-controlled device designed to maintain process parameters necessary for standardized and effective liquid chemical sterilization. - ANSWER System 1E liquid chemical sterilant processing

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PTCB CSPT FINAL EXAM STUDY
GUIDE 2025/2026 ACCURATE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS
<LATEST VERSION>



1. Central sterile and processing technologist - ANSWER ✓ A individual that
is dependable, reliable, and responsible for providing services to enhance the
quality of patient care.
Responsible for receiving, cleaning, decontaminating, assembling,
disinfecting, sterilizing, reusable medical and surgical devices.

2. John perkins - ANSWER ✓ a scientist employed by amsco observed that
sterilization is everyone's business but no one's responsibility

3. Amsco - ANSWER ✓ american sterilizer company started in 1933 which
later became steris corporation

4. The year that The Central Service and Sterile Processing Department was -
ANSWER ✓ in 1982

5. Decontamination area - ANSWER ✓ Where soiled items are received and
cleaned.

6. Preparation area - ANSWER ✓ Where cleaned items are inspected,
assembled, and packaged.

7. Sterilization area - ANSWER ✓ Where terminal sterilization is performed.

,8. Sterilization storage area - ANSWER ✓ Where sterile items are stored until
needed.

9. Sterile stores - ANSWER ✓ Where items for patient care from outside
manufacturers are stored.

10.Case cart area - ANSWER ✓ where sterile supplies are kept and picked for
sugical cases ( trays and sterile items from outside the manufacturers)

11.Dispatch - ANSWER ✓ where sterile and clean items are dispensed

12.Loaner area - ANSWER ✓ for the receipt and return of instruments
borrowed for specialty procedures

13.Patient care equipment clean up area - ANSWER ✓ The area in SPD where
patient care equipment is cleaned and disinfected. There might be a separate
area for this purpose, and there is usually a separate area for storage of
cleaned and disinfected equipment.

14.Patient harmed by compounded sterile preparations - ANSWER ✓ microbial
contamination, excessive bacterial endotoxins, variability in strength of
ingredients, chemical/physical contaminants, inappropriate quality of
ingredients

15.Non sterile compounding examples - ANSWER ✓ products used orally,
topically on skin or to fill gaps when not commercially available

16.Aseptic - ANSWER ✓ state of being free from microbial contamination

17.Sterile compounded items - ANSWER ✓ injections(iv, etc) ophthalmic
drops, aqueous bronchial or nasal inhalations, baths for live organs, tissue
implants, irrigation for wounds or cavities

18.Non hazardous hoods - ANSWER ✓ Laminar airflow workbench (LAFW)
compounding containment isolator (CAI)

,19.Hazardous hoods - ANSWER ✓ biological safety cabinet (BSC)
compounding aseptic containment isolator (CACI)

20.Primary Engineering Control (PEC) - ANSWER ✓ a device or room that
provides an ISO Class 5 environment for the exposure of critical sites when
compounding CSPs. Such devices include, but may not be limited to,
laminar airflow workbenches (LAFWs), biological safety cabinets (BSCs),
compounding aseptic isolators (CAIs), and compounding aseptic
containment isolators (CACIs).

21.Secondary engineering controls - ANSWER ✓ the ante area and buffer area

22.Buffer or Clean Room - ANSWER ✓ ISO 7

23.Ante Room ISO class - ANSWER ✓ ISO 8, unless provides access to
negative pressure room then ISO 7

24.Handling Spills of hazardous meds - ANSWER ✓ double chemotherapy
gloves
gown
eye/face for large spills

25.Chemotherapy Spill Mat - ANSWER ✓ asorbable mat placed on workbench
dispose in chemotherapy sharps container

26.Chemotherapy Sharps Container - ANSWER ✓ gloves
sterile gown
CSTD
alcohol pads
syringes
drug vials
**bright yellow**

27.Chemotherapy Tube Preparation - ANSWER ✓ prep IV tube before placing
drug in IV bag

28.Chemotherapy Syringe filing rule - ANSWER ✓ don't fill with more than
75% medication

, 29.Chemotherapy Spill Kit - ANSWER ✓ safety glasses
chemo gown
chemo gloves
face mask
biohazard bag
absorbent towels or mat
dustpan and broom
clean-up instructions
puncture-resistant container
sharps container

30.Chemotherapy Spill Cleanup Procedure - ANSWER ✓ clear area
place warning signs around spill
check SDS for procedure
grab spill kit and put of ppe
place towels on liquid or use dust pan
throw towels in chemotherapy bag
use appropriate cleaner
place all PPE and items in biohazard bag
place biohazard bag in chemo sharps container
fill out incident report

31.Hazardous drug Group 1 - ANSWER ✓ Antineoplastic drug-many may pose
reproductive risk

32.Hazardous Group 2 - ANSWER ✓ non-antineoplastic drug-some may pose
reproductive risk

33.Hazardous Group 3 - ANSWER ✓ Drugs that primarily pose a reproductive
risk

34.Containment primary engineering control (C-PEC) - ANSWER ✓ ventilated
device designed and operated to minimize work and environmental
exposures to hazardous drug

35.Class II BSC type A2, B1, B2 - ANSWER ✓ acceptable for USP 800 HD

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