PTCB CSPT FINAL EXAM STUDY
GUIDE 2025/2026 ACCURATE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS
LATEST VERSION
1. Central sterile and processing technologist - ANSWER A individual that
is dependable, reliable, and responsible for providing services to enhance the
quality of patient care.
Responsible for receiving, cleaning, decontaminating, assembling,
disinfecting, sterilizing, reusable medical and surgical devices.
2. John perkins - ANSWER a scientist employed by amsco observed that
sterilization is everyone's business but no one's responsibility
3. Amsco - ANSWER american sterilizer company started in 1933 which
later became steris corporation
4. The year that The Central Service and Sterile Processing Department was -
ANSWER in 1982
5. Decontamination area - ANSWER Where soiled items are received and
cleaned.
6. Preparation area - ANSWER Where cleaned items are inspected,
assembled, and packaged.
7. Sterilization area - ANSWER Where terminal sterilization is performed.
8. Sterilization storage area - ANSWER Where sterile items are stored until
needed.
9. Sterile stores - ANSWER Where items for patient care from outside
manufacturers are stored.
10. Case cart area - ANSWER where sterile supplies are kept and picked for
sugical cases ( trays and sterile items from outside the manufacturers)
11. Dispatch - ANSWER where sterile and clean items are dispensed
12. Loaner area - ANSWER for the receipt and return of instruments
borrowed for specialty procedures
13. Patient care equipment clean up area - ANSWER The area in SPD where
patient care equipment is cleaned and disinfected. There might be a separate
area for this purpose, and there is usually a separate area for storage of
cleaned and disinfected equipment.
14. Patient harmed by compounded sterile preparations - ANSWER microbial
contamination, excessive bacterial endotoxins, variability in strength of
ingredients, chemical/physical contaminants, inappropriate quality of
ingredients
15. Non sterile compounding examples - ANSWER products used orally,
topically on skin or to fill gaps when not commercially available
16. Aseptic - ANSWER state of being free from microbial contamination
17. Sterile compounded items - ANSWER injections(iv, etc) ophthalmic
drops, aqueous bronchial or nasal inhalations, baths for live organs, tissue
implants, irrigation for wounds or cavities
18. Non hazardous hoods - ANSWER Laminar airflow workbench (LAFW)
compounding containment isolator (CAI)
19. Hazardous hoods - ANSWER biological safety cabinet (BSC)
compounding aseptic containment isolator (CACI)
20. Primary Engineering Control (PEC) - ANSWER a device or room that
provides an ISO Class 5 environment for the exposure of critical sites when
compounding CSPs. Such devices include, but may not be limited to,
laminar airflow workbenches (LAFWs), biological safety cabinets (BSCs),
compounding aseptic isolators (CAIs), and compounding aseptic
containment isolators (CACIs).
21. Secondary engineering controls - ANSWER the ante area and buffer area
22. Buffer or Clean Room - ANSWER ISO 7
23. Ante Room ISO class - ANSWER ISO 8, unless provides access to
negative pressure room then ISO 7
24. Handling Spills of hazardous meds - ANSWER double chemotherapy
gloves
gown
eye/face for large spills
25. Chemotherapy Spill Mat - ANSWER asorbable mat placed on workbench
dispose in chemotherapy sharps container
26. Chemotherapy Sharps Container - ANSWER gloves
sterile gown
CSTD
alcohol pads
syringes
drug vials
**bright yellow**
27. Chemotherapy Tube Preparation - ANSWER prep IV tube before placing
drug in IV bag
28. Chemotherapy Syringe filing rule - ANSWER don't fill with more than
75% medication
29. Chemotherapy Spill Kit - ANSWER safety glasses
chemo gown
chemo gloves
face mask
biohazard bag
absorbent towels or mat
dustpan and broom
clean-up instructions
puncture-resistant container
sharps container
30. Chemotherapy Spill Cleanup Procedure - ANSWER clear area
place warning signs around spill
check SDS for procedure
grab spill kit and put of ppe
place towels on liquid or use dust pan
throw towels in chemotherapy bag
use appropriate cleaner
place all PPE and items in biohazard bag
place biohazard bag in chemo sharps container
fill out incident report
31. Hazardous drug Group 1 - ANSWER Antineoplastic drug-many may pose
reproductive risk
32. Hazardous Group 2 - ANSWER non-antineoplastic drug-some may pose
reproductive risk
33. Hazardous Group 3 - ANSWER Drugs that primarily pose a reproductive
risk
34. Containment primary engineering control (C-PEC) - ANSWER ventilated
device designed and operated to minimize work and environmental
exposures to hazardous drug
35. Class II BSC type A2, B1, B2 - ANSWER acceptable for USP 800 HD
36. Class II BSC type A1 - ANSWER not acceptable for USP 800 HD
37. Containment secondary engineering control (C-SEC) - ANSWER the
room with fixed walls in which the C-PEC is placed; it incorporates specific
design and operational parameters required to contain the potential hazard
within the compounding room
38. Removal of PPE of Hazardous Compounding - ANSWER outer gloves
turned inside out
face shield
gown-turned inside out
hair coverings, face mask, shoe coverings from least contaminated to most
inner gloves
all disposed in HD disposal container
39. Chemotherapy gowns - ANSWER impermeable
changed every 2-3 hours unless spill
40. HD Transport Bags - ANSWER never placed in C-PEC
41. Decontamination, deactivation, an cleaning-HD - ANSWER cleaning or
deactivating HD with elimination type detergent
42. Hazardous Waste Misc Meds - ANSWER warfarin, nicotine,
dalfampridine, physostigmine
43. Pneumatic tube system meds not allowed - ANSWER expensive
do not shake
larger than 1000ml
44. Digoxin mechanism of action - ANSWER increases the force of
contraction of the muscle of the heart by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme
(ATPase) that controls movement of calcium, sodium, and potassium into
heart muscle. Calcium controls the force of contraction.
45. Laminar flow hoods must be certified every ___ months. - ANSWER 12
46. laminar flow hoods must be turned on _____ before use - ANSWER 30
minutes
47. 60/100 = x% - ANSWER 60
48. 1/5 = x% - ANSWER 20
49. 3/8 = x% - ANSWER 38
50. 2/50 = x% - ANSWER 4
51. The three phases of LTHP sterilization. - ANSWER Conditioning,
sterilization, aeration
52. The phase in a LTHP cycle where the reservoir fills with sterilant and a
vacuum pulse removes air and moisture from the chamber. When the set
point is reached, the load is tested for moisture content and then dry air is
introduced. - ANSWER Conditioning phase
53. The phase in a LTHP cycle consisting of four pulses. A vacuum pulled to a
set point, sterilant vapor drawn into chamber, exposure period, filtered air
introduced to a set point, another exposure, then a deep vacuum. - ANSWER
Sterilization phase
54. The phase in a LTHP cycle where the system pulls a vacuum and continues
to evacuate the chamber for the programmed time until the pressure is at an
atmospheric level. - ANSWER Aeration phase
55. CIs change from red to yellow for ___ sterilization, and purple to yellow for
___ sterilization. - ANSWER LTGP, LTHP
56. A low-temperature sterilization method for heat, pressure, and moisture
sensitive items. A form of oxygen with an extra atom to form O3. Electricity
is added to create a higher energy level, giving it an oxidative action. -
ANSWER Ozone
57. The advantages of ___ sterilization are low cost, no toxic fumes or
hazardous byproducts, no disposal costs, low cost per cubic foot of space,
and aeration is unnecessary because it uses only oxygen, water, and
electricity. The disadvantages are limited penetration and metal corrosion. -
ANSWER Ozone
58. The three parameters of ozone sterilization. - ANSWER Time,
temperature, ozone concentration
59. Ozone sterilization cycles run at ___°F for ___ hours. - ANSWER 68-79,
4
60. Incubation of BIs for ozone are at ___°F for ___ hours at the first reading
and ___ hours at the second. - ANSWER 131-140, 24, 48
61. To combine chemically with oxygen. The process used by LTHP, ozone,
and dry heat sterilization to kill microorganisms. - ANSWER Oxidation
62. The sterilization method used mainly for sterilizing powders, oils, and
petroleum-based items. It is not widely used otherwise because of it's high
temperatures and long exposure times, which can damage devices and
packaging materials. - ANSWER Dry heat
63. The two types of dry heat sterilizers. - ANSWER Gravity, convection
64. The sterilization process using gravity to lower heat from the top of the
sterilizer to the bottom. Produces greater temperature variations within the
chamber. - ANSWER Gravity-type dry heat
65. The sterilization process using a fan to move heat around the chamber,
providing for even heating. - ANSWER Convection-type dry heat
66. The packaging material of choice for ___ sterilization is aluminum foil.
Glass and metal containers can also be used. - ANSWER Dry heat
67. An automated, table-top, microcomputer-controlled device designed to
maintain process parameters necessary for standardized and effective liquid
chemical sterilization. - ANSWER System 1E liquid chemical sterilant
processing
Content preview
PTCB CSPT FINAL EXAM STUDY
GUIDE 2025/2026 ACCURATE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS
<LATEST VERSION>
1. Central sterile and processing technologist - ANSWER ✓ A individual that
is dependable, reliable, and responsible for providing services to enhance the
quality of patient care.
Responsible for receiving, cleaning, decontaminating, assembling,
disinfecting, sterilizing, reusable medical and surgical devices.
2. John perkins - ANSWER ✓ a scientist employed by amsco observed that
sterilization is everyone's business but no one's responsibility
3. Amsco - ANSWER ✓ american sterilizer company started in 1933 which
later became steris corporation
4. The year that The Central Service and Sterile Processing Department was -
ANSWER ✓ in 1982
5. Decontamination area - ANSWER ✓ Where soiled items are received and
cleaned.
6. Preparation area - ANSWER ✓ Where cleaned items are inspected,
assembled, and packaged.
7. Sterilization area - ANSWER ✓ Where terminal sterilization is performed.
,8. Sterilization storage area - ANSWER ✓ Where sterile items are stored until
needed.
9. Sterile stores - ANSWER ✓ Where items for patient care from outside
manufacturers are stored.
10.Case cart area - ANSWER ✓ where sterile supplies are kept and picked for
sugical cases ( trays and sterile items from outside the manufacturers)
11.Dispatch - ANSWER ✓ where sterile and clean items are dispensed
12.Loaner area - ANSWER ✓ for the receipt and return of instruments
borrowed for specialty procedures
13.Patient care equipment clean up area - ANSWER ✓ The area in SPD where
patient care equipment is cleaned and disinfected. There might be a separate
area for this purpose, and there is usually a separate area for storage of
cleaned and disinfected equipment.
14.Patient harmed by compounded sterile preparations - ANSWER ✓ microbial
contamination, excessive bacterial endotoxins, variability in strength of
ingredients, chemical/physical contaminants, inappropriate quality of
ingredients
15.Non sterile compounding examples - ANSWER ✓ products used orally,
topically on skin or to fill gaps when not commercially available
16.Aseptic - ANSWER ✓ state of being free from microbial contamination
17.Sterile compounded items - ANSWER ✓ injections(iv, etc) ophthalmic
drops, aqueous bronchial or nasal inhalations, baths for live organs, tissue
implants, irrigation for wounds or cavities
18.Non hazardous hoods - ANSWER ✓ Laminar airflow workbench (LAFW)
compounding containment isolator (CAI)
,19.Hazardous hoods - ANSWER ✓ biological safety cabinet (BSC)
compounding aseptic containment isolator (CACI)
20.Primary Engineering Control (PEC) - ANSWER ✓ a device or room that
provides an ISO Class 5 environment for the exposure of critical sites when
compounding CSPs. Such devices include, but may not be limited to,
laminar airflow workbenches (LAFWs), biological safety cabinets (BSCs),
compounding aseptic isolators (CAIs), and compounding aseptic
containment isolators (CACIs).
21.Secondary engineering controls - ANSWER ✓ the ante area and buffer area
22.Buffer or Clean Room - ANSWER ✓ ISO 7
23.Ante Room ISO class - ANSWER ✓ ISO 8, unless provides access to
negative pressure room then ISO 7
24.Handling Spills of hazardous meds - ANSWER ✓ double chemotherapy
gloves
gown
eye/face for large spills
25.Chemotherapy Spill Mat - ANSWER ✓ asorbable mat placed on workbench
dispose in chemotherapy sharps container
26.Chemotherapy Sharps Container - ANSWER ✓ gloves
sterile gown
CSTD
alcohol pads
syringes
drug vials
**bright yellow**
27.Chemotherapy Tube Preparation - ANSWER ✓ prep IV tube before placing
drug in IV bag
28.Chemotherapy Syringe filing rule - ANSWER ✓ don't fill with more than
75% medication
, 29.Chemotherapy Spill Kit - ANSWER ✓ safety glasses
chemo gown
chemo gloves
face mask
biohazard bag
absorbent towels or mat
dustpan and broom
clean-up instructions
puncture-resistant container
sharps container
30.Chemotherapy Spill Cleanup Procedure - ANSWER ✓ clear area
place warning signs around spill
check SDS for procedure
grab spill kit and put of ppe
place towels on liquid or use dust pan
throw towels in chemotherapy bag
use appropriate cleaner
place all PPE and items in biohazard bag
place biohazard bag in chemo sharps container
fill out incident report
31.Hazardous drug Group 1 - ANSWER ✓ Antineoplastic drug-many may pose
reproductive risk
32.Hazardous Group 2 - ANSWER ✓ non-antineoplastic drug-some may pose
reproductive risk
33.Hazardous Group 3 - ANSWER ✓ Drugs that primarily pose a reproductive
risk
34.Containment primary engineering control (C-PEC) - ANSWER ✓ ventilated
device designed and operated to minimize work and environmental
exposures to hazardous drug
35.Class II BSC type A2, B1, B2 - ANSWER ✓ acceptable for USP 800 HD