AVIATION PRO 3 EXAM WITH ALL CORRECT & 100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS|ALREADY GRADED A+
An operable 4096 code transponder, Mode C encoding altimeter, and ADSB-Out are required in
Correct answer-Class B airspace and within 30mi of the Class B primary airport
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft in class D airspace are Correct answer-
1000ft ceiling and 3mi visibility
What hazards to aircraft may exist in a MOA? Correct answer-High density military training
activities
What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along a route labeled "VR 6446"? Correct
answer-VFR training flights below 1500ft AGL at speeds in excess of 250 kts
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200
feet AGL in controlled airspace is Correct answer-5 miles
To act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating
altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000ft MSL, a person is required to Correct answer-Receive
and log ground and flight training in such aircraft, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying
proficiency
Where in the 14 CFR would you find the specified types of activities you can engage in as a
commercial pilot without working for a Part 135 or Part 121 carrier? Correct answer-Part 119
What is the specific component of a turbocharger that uses exhaust gas to produce rotational
energy? Correct answer-Turbine
What is the most common type of oxygen system found in light piston aircraft? It is usable to around
25,000ft Correct answer-Continuous flow
Pressurized aircraft are usually operated in which mode? Correct answer-Isobaric mode
On older style analog pressurization systems, before takeoff, the cabin altitude controller should be
set to Correct answer-500ft above field elevation
In a lazy eight, at the 90-degree point, your bank should be Correct answer-30 degrees
What is the maximum angle of bank for a steep spiral? Correct answer-60 degrees
When a lower engine load is placed on a constant speed prop (i.e. by pitching down and picking up
airspeed), while its in governing range, the initial effect on the propeller RPM will be to Correct
answer-Increase RPM
When a RPM is decreased by reducing the propeller setting (i.e. pulling the prop lever aft) on a single
engine constant speed prop (i.e. pulling the prop lever aft) the flyweights will Correct answer-Drop
outwards
When a RPM is decreased by reducing the propeller setting on a single engine constant speed prop
(i.e. pulling the prop lever aft) oil will flow Correct answer-Into the hub assembly
, When a RPM is decreased by reducing the propeller setting on a single engine constant speed prop
(i.e. pulling the prop lever aft) the piston in the hub assembly will Correct answer-move toward the
high pitch stop
If oil pressure was lost on a single engine prop governor such as the DA-40, the propeller will move to
Correct answer-low pitch
When doing a chandelle, at what pitch should you be at the 90 degree points? Correct answer-Max
pitch up of the maneuver
When doing eights on pylons, what is your highest pivotal altitude if your TAS is 95kts and your winds
aloft is 10kts? Correct answer-976ft
At a turbocharged aircraft's critical altitude Correct answer-The turbocharger will be unable to
maintain sea level power, and the wastegate will be completely closed
Which of the following is a correct statement about aircraft oxygen systems? Correct answer-A
diluter-demand system is considered more efficient than a continuous flow system because oxygen is
only delivered as an individual inhales
Which of the following is true regarding turbocharged aircraft operations? Correct answer-Both 1
and 2 are correct
How does the FAA define common carriage? Correct answer-holding out a willingness to transport
persons or property from place to place for compensation or hire
Which of the following is true regarding weight on wheels (squat) switches? Correct answer-A
squat switch makes contact when an aircraft is on the ground, shutting off power to the gear motor
At what altitude does the Class E transition area begin? Correct answer-700ft above the surface
What is the maximum indicated airspeed at which any person may operate an aircraft within Class D
airspace? Correct answer-200kts
What is the purpose of the flow meter (also known as the flow indicator) in an oxygen system?
Correct answer-To determine that oxygen flow is present when the system is operating
In a continuous flow oxygen system, the purpose of the regulator valve is to: Correct answer-
Reduce the oxygen pressure coming from the oxygen tank
A rebreather bag is a component of a: Correct answer-Continuous flow system
Cabin differential pressure is defined as: Correct answer-The difference between the pressure
inside the cabin and the external atmospheric pressure
The principle of operation of an aircraft pressurization system is: Correct answer-Air is pumped in
at a constant rate, and cabin pressurization is maintained at the appropriate level by the positioning
of the outflow valve
VERIFIED ANSWERS|ALREADY GRADED A+
An operable 4096 code transponder, Mode C encoding altimeter, and ADSB-Out are required in
Correct answer-Class B airspace and within 30mi of the Class B primary airport
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft in class D airspace are Correct answer-
1000ft ceiling and 3mi visibility
What hazards to aircraft may exist in a MOA? Correct answer-High density military training
activities
What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along a route labeled "VR 6446"? Correct
answer-VFR training flights below 1500ft AGL at speeds in excess of 250 kts
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200
feet AGL in controlled airspace is Correct answer-5 miles
To act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating
altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000ft MSL, a person is required to Correct answer-Receive
and log ground and flight training in such aircraft, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying
proficiency
Where in the 14 CFR would you find the specified types of activities you can engage in as a
commercial pilot without working for a Part 135 or Part 121 carrier? Correct answer-Part 119
What is the specific component of a turbocharger that uses exhaust gas to produce rotational
energy? Correct answer-Turbine
What is the most common type of oxygen system found in light piston aircraft? It is usable to around
25,000ft Correct answer-Continuous flow
Pressurized aircraft are usually operated in which mode? Correct answer-Isobaric mode
On older style analog pressurization systems, before takeoff, the cabin altitude controller should be
set to Correct answer-500ft above field elevation
In a lazy eight, at the 90-degree point, your bank should be Correct answer-30 degrees
What is the maximum angle of bank for a steep spiral? Correct answer-60 degrees
When a lower engine load is placed on a constant speed prop (i.e. by pitching down and picking up
airspeed), while its in governing range, the initial effect on the propeller RPM will be to Correct
answer-Increase RPM
When a RPM is decreased by reducing the propeller setting (i.e. pulling the prop lever aft) on a single
engine constant speed prop (i.e. pulling the prop lever aft) the flyweights will Correct answer-Drop
outwards
When a RPM is decreased by reducing the propeller setting on a single engine constant speed prop
(i.e. pulling the prop lever aft) oil will flow Correct answer-Into the hub assembly
, When a RPM is decreased by reducing the propeller setting on a single engine constant speed prop
(i.e. pulling the prop lever aft) the piston in the hub assembly will Correct answer-move toward the
high pitch stop
If oil pressure was lost on a single engine prop governor such as the DA-40, the propeller will move to
Correct answer-low pitch
When doing a chandelle, at what pitch should you be at the 90 degree points? Correct answer-Max
pitch up of the maneuver
When doing eights on pylons, what is your highest pivotal altitude if your TAS is 95kts and your winds
aloft is 10kts? Correct answer-976ft
At a turbocharged aircraft's critical altitude Correct answer-The turbocharger will be unable to
maintain sea level power, and the wastegate will be completely closed
Which of the following is a correct statement about aircraft oxygen systems? Correct answer-A
diluter-demand system is considered more efficient than a continuous flow system because oxygen is
only delivered as an individual inhales
Which of the following is true regarding turbocharged aircraft operations? Correct answer-Both 1
and 2 are correct
How does the FAA define common carriage? Correct answer-holding out a willingness to transport
persons or property from place to place for compensation or hire
Which of the following is true regarding weight on wheels (squat) switches? Correct answer-A
squat switch makes contact when an aircraft is on the ground, shutting off power to the gear motor
At what altitude does the Class E transition area begin? Correct answer-700ft above the surface
What is the maximum indicated airspeed at which any person may operate an aircraft within Class D
airspace? Correct answer-200kts
What is the purpose of the flow meter (also known as the flow indicator) in an oxygen system?
Correct answer-To determine that oxygen flow is present when the system is operating
In a continuous flow oxygen system, the purpose of the regulator valve is to: Correct answer-
Reduce the oxygen pressure coming from the oxygen tank
A rebreather bag is a component of a: Correct answer-Continuous flow system
Cabin differential pressure is defined as: Correct answer-The difference between the pressure
inside the cabin and the external atmospheric pressure
The principle of operation of an aircraft pressurization system is: Correct answer-Air is pumped in
at a constant rate, and cabin pressurization is maintained at the appropriate level by the positioning
of the outflow valve
