CNRN Practice Test Questions Questions with correct answers

CNRN Practice Test Questions Questions with correct answers A patient with a known seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital with altered mental status. His phenytoin (Dilantin) level is 35.6. What is the most appropriate action? - Hold phenytoin and rec heck a level the next day; a normal level 10-20 mcg/mL. Supratherapeutic levels can cause confusion, nausea, urticaria, nystagmus, hypotension, and cardiac arrhythmias. Which of the following are sources of an embolic stroke? - Patent foramen ovale; A patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a hole between the left and right atria of the heart. It normally closes shortly after birth. This condition may cause the formation of clots which can travel to the brain leading to a transient ischemic attack or stroke. Tx-antiplatelet meds or blood thinners. HTN, obesity and HDL are risk factors for thrombotic stroke. A patient c/o of a headache for the past several wks is dx with a subacute subdural hematoma. Which of the following is not an appropriate course of action? - Administer levetiracetam (Keppra); Antiepileptic drugs are not indicated for subacute hemorrhagic brain injuries. The greatest risk of seizure is in the first two weeks following the incident. If no seizure has occurred during this time then antiepileptic drugs do not need to be prescribed for the patient. Which of the following regarding astrocytomas is NOT correct? - Grace IV astrocytomas are benign; Astrocytomas arise from astrocytes, which are a type of glial cell; they are the most common glial tumor. Surgical resection in conjunction with chemotherapy and radiation are commo