PHARMACOLOGY EVOLVE HESI FINAL
EXAM 2025 WITH REAL QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS || ALREADY GRADED A+||
GUARANTEED PASS || LATEST VERSION
A psychiatric client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for
haloperidol. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge
teaching plan for this client?
A. Take with antacids to reduce gastrointestinal irritation.
B. Use sunglasses and sunscreen when outdoors.
C. Eat foods low in fiber and salt.
D. Count the pulse before each dose. - ANSWER-B. Use sunglasses and
sunscreen when outdoors.
Photosensitivity is a common adverse effect of haloperidol (Haldol); therefore,
the use of sunglasses and sunscreen should be included in the discharge
teaching for this client. Options A, C, and D are not pertinent to client teaching
regarding the use of haloperidol (Haldol).
The nurse is reviewing prescribed medications with a female client who is
preparing for discharge. The client asks the nurse why the oral dose of an opioid
analgesic is higher than the IV dose that she received during hospitalization.
Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. A higher dose of analgesic medication may be needed after discharge.
B. An error in the dose calculation may have occurred when the prescribed dose
was converted.
,C. The doses should be the same unless the pain is not well controlled.
D. Oral forms of drugs must pass through the liver first, where more of the dose
is metabolized. - ANSWER-D. Oral forms of drugs must pass through the liver
first, where more of the dose is metabolized.
Oral doses of medication are usually larger than parenteral doses to compensate
for the first-pass effect in the liver after oral administration, which metabolizes
more of the drug's dose before affecting its therapeutic response. Although
recommended dose ranges for adults should be individualized, a client's pain
should be controlled at discharge, not option A or C. Option B is inaccurate
information to convey to the client.
The nurse is scheduling a client's antibiotic peak and trough levels with the
laboratory personnel. What is the best schedule for drawing the trough level?
A. Give the dose of medication, and call the laboratory to draw the trough
STAT.
B. Arrange for the laboratory to draw the trough 1 hour after the dose is given.
C. Instruct the laboratory to draw the trough immediately before the next
scheduled dose.
D. Give the first dose of medication after the laboratory reports that the trough
has been drawn. - ANSWER-C. Instruct the laboratory to draw the trough
immediately before the next scheduled dose.
The best time to draw a trough is the closest time to the next administration.
Option A will provide a peak level. Option B will not provide the most accurate
trough level. The medication is given before peak and trough levels are
obtained.
A male client asks the nurse why condoms should not be lubricated with the
spermicide nonoxynol-9. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
,A. The risk of female infertility and spontaneous abortion is linked with
nonoxynol-9.
B. Partners can develop intermittent interstitial cystitis if the spermicide is used
after the expiration date.
C. The spermicide decreases the amount of vaginal and penile sensitivity for up
to 8 to 12 hours.
D. Nonoxynol-9 provides no protection from STDs and has been linked to the
transmission of HIV. - ANSWER-D. Nonoxynol-9 provides no protection from
STDs and has been linked to the transmission of HIV.
The use of condoms and a water-based spermicide is recommended because
nonoxynol-9 can cause a rash that allows viruses a portal of entry if the condom
breaks, which increases the risk of transmission of sexually transmitted diseases
(STDs), such as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), herpes, human
papillomavirus (HPV), or hepatitis B virus (HBV). Options A and B are
inaccurate. Nonoxynol-9 may cause vaginal irritation, not option C.
Which intervention is most important for a nurse to implement prior to
administering atropine PO?
A. Determine the presence of 5 to 35 bowel sounds/min.
B. Provide oral care prior to administration.
C. Verify that the client's tendon reflexes are 2+.
D. Have the client rate his or her pain on a 0 to10 scale. - ANSWER-A.
Determine the presence of 5 to 35 bowel sounds/min.
Anticholinergic drugs, such as atropine, have antispasmodic and antisecretory
properties, which relax the gastrointestinal tract, and are therefore
contraindicated in a client with intestinal atony. Oral care may be required after
administration since atropine can dry secretions. Option B (used to determine
dehydration) or (C). Atropine itself has no analgesic effect; it is used with
opioids to potentiate their effect.
, A chemotherapeutic regimen with doxorubicin HCl is being planned for a client
recently diagnosed with cancer. What diagnostic test results should the nurse
review prior to initiating this treatment?
A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
B. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
C. Serum cholesterol level
D. Pelvic ultrasound - ANSWER-A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Baseline cardiac function studies are required to monitor the irreversible
cardiotoxic effects of doxorubicin HCl. Option B assesses disturbances of acid-
base balance. Option C is not affected by this chemotherapeutic agent. Option D
is used to detect pelvic abnormalities such as tumors but is not specific for the
administration of doxorubicin HCl.
The nurse is preparing to administer a secondary infusion of a dobutamine
solution to a client. The nurse notes that the solution is brown in color. Which
action should the nurse implement?
A. Verify the prescribed dose with the health care provider.
B. Discard the solution and reorder from the pharmacy.
C. Dilute the solution with more normal saline until it becomes lighter in color.
D. Administer the drug if the solution's reconstitution time is <24 hours. -
ANSWER-D. Administer the drug if the solution's reconstitution time is <24
hours.
The color of the dobutamine solution is normal, and the solution should be
administered within 24 hours after reconstitution, so the time of reconstitution
should be verified before administering the solution of medication. Option A is
not indicated. Option B is not necessary. Additional dilution of a drug in
solution is stated in the manufacturer's reconstitution instructions, but option C
is not needed.
EXAM 2025 WITH REAL QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS || ALREADY GRADED A+||
GUARANTEED PASS || LATEST VERSION
A psychiatric client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for
haloperidol. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge
teaching plan for this client?
A. Take with antacids to reduce gastrointestinal irritation.
B. Use sunglasses and sunscreen when outdoors.
C. Eat foods low in fiber and salt.
D. Count the pulse before each dose. - ANSWER-B. Use sunglasses and
sunscreen when outdoors.
Photosensitivity is a common adverse effect of haloperidol (Haldol); therefore,
the use of sunglasses and sunscreen should be included in the discharge
teaching for this client. Options A, C, and D are not pertinent to client teaching
regarding the use of haloperidol (Haldol).
The nurse is reviewing prescribed medications with a female client who is
preparing for discharge. The client asks the nurse why the oral dose of an opioid
analgesic is higher than the IV dose that she received during hospitalization.
Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. A higher dose of analgesic medication may be needed after discharge.
B. An error in the dose calculation may have occurred when the prescribed dose
was converted.
,C. The doses should be the same unless the pain is not well controlled.
D. Oral forms of drugs must pass through the liver first, where more of the dose
is metabolized. - ANSWER-D. Oral forms of drugs must pass through the liver
first, where more of the dose is metabolized.
Oral doses of medication are usually larger than parenteral doses to compensate
for the first-pass effect in the liver after oral administration, which metabolizes
more of the drug's dose before affecting its therapeutic response. Although
recommended dose ranges for adults should be individualized, a client's pain
should be controlled at discharge, not option A or C. Option B is inaccurate
information to convey to the client.
The nurse is scheduling a client's antibiotic peak and trough levels with the
laboratory personnel. What is the best schedule for drawing the trough level?
A. Give the dose of medication, and call the laboratory to draw the trough
STAT.
B. Arrange for the laboratory to draw the trough 1 hour after the dose is given.
C. Instruct the laboratory to draw the trough immediately before the next
scheduled dose.
D. Give the first dose of medication after the laboratory reports that the trough
has been drawn. - ANSWER-C. Instruct the laboratory to draw the trough
immediately before the next scheduled dose.
The best time to draw a trough is the closest time to the next administration.
Option A will provide a peak level. Option B will not provide the most accurate
trough level. The medication is given before peak and trough levels are
obtained.
A male client asks the nurse why condoms should not be lubricated with the
spermicide nonoxynol-9. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
,A. The risk of female infertility and spontaneous abortion is linked with
nonoxynol-9.
B. Partners can develop intermittent interstitial cystitis if the spermicide is used
after the expiration date.
C. The spermicide decreases the amount of vaginal and penile sensitivity for up
to 8 to 12 hours.
D. Nonoxynol-9 provides no protection from STDs and has been linked to the
transmission of HIV. - ANSWER-D. Nonoxynol-9 provides no protection from
STDs and has been linked to the transmission of HIV.
The use of condoms and a water-based spermicide is recommended because
nonoxynol-9 can cause a rash that allows viruses a portal of entry if the condom
breaks, which increases the risk of transmission of sexually transmitted diseases
(STDs), such as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), herpes, human
papillomavirus (HPV), or hepatitis B virus (HBV). Options A and B are
inaccurate. Nonoxynol-9 may cause vaginal irritation, not option C.
Which intervention is most important for a nurse to implement prior to
administering atropine PO?
A. Determine the presence of 5 to 35 bowel sounds/min.
B. Provide oral care prior to administration.
C. Verify that the client's tendon reflexes are 2+.
D. Have the client rate his or her pain on a 0 to10 scale. - ANSWER-A.
Determine the presence of 5 to 35 bowel sounds/min.
Anticholinergic drugs, such as atropine, have antispasmodic and antisecretory
properties, which relax the gastrointestinal tract, and are therefore
contraindicated in a client with intestinal atony. Oral care may be required after
administration since atropine can dry secretions. Option B (used to determine
dehydration) or (C). Atropine itself has no analgesic effect; it is used with
opioids to potentiate their effect.
, A chemotherapeutic regimen with doxorubicin HCl is being planned for a client
recently diagnosed with cancer. What diagnostic test results should the nurse
review prior to initiating this treatment?
A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
B. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
C. Serum cholesterol level
D. Pelvic ultrasound - ANSWER-A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Baseline cardiac function studies are required to monitor the irreversible
cardiotoxic effects of doxorubicin HCl. Option B assesses disturbances of acid-
base balance. Option C is not affected by this chemotherapeutic agent. Option D
is used to detect pelvic abnormalities such as tumors but is not specific for the
administration of doxorubicin HCl.
The nurse is preparing to administer a secondary infusion of a dobutamine
solution to a client. The nurse notes that the solution is brown in color. Which
action should the nurse implement?
A. Verify the prescribed dose with the health care provider.
B. Discard the solution and reorder from the pharmacy.
C. Dilute the solution with more normal saline until it becomes lighter in color.
D. Administer the drug if the solution's reconstitution time is <24 hours. -
ANSWER-D. Administer the drug if the solution's reconstitution time is <24
hours.
The color of the dobutamine solution is normal, and the solution should be
administered within 24 hours after reconstitution, so the time of reconstitution
should be verified before administering the solution of medication. Option A is
not indicated. Option B is not necessary. Additional dilution of a drug in
solution is stated in the manufacturer's reconstitution instructions, but option C
is not needed.
