WREB – WESTERN REGIONAL EXAMINING
BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100%
CORRECT ANSWERS
300 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. Q: What is the most common benign tumor of the oral cavity? A:
Fibroma (irritation fibroma)
2. Q: What is the characteristic clinical appearance of oral lichen
planus? A: White, lacy, reticular (net-like) striae with possible areas of
erythema and ulceration
3. Q: What is the most common malignant tumor of the oral cavity? A:
Squamous cell carcinoma
4. Q: What are Wickham's striae? A: White, lacy, reticular lines
characteristic of oral lichen planus
5. Q: What is the most common location for oral squamous cell
carcinoma? A: Lateral border of the tongue
6. Q: What is leukoplakia? A: A white patch or plaque that cannot be
rubbed off and cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any
other disease
7. Q: What is erythroplakia? A: A red patch or plaque that cannot be
characterized clinically or pathologically as any other condition
8. Q: What is the malignant transformation rate of oral leukoplakia? A:
Approximately 1-5%
9. Q: What is the most common cause of xerostomia? A: Medications
(especially anticholinergics, antidepressants, antihistamines)
10.Q: What is Sjögren's syndrome? A: An autoimmune disorder affecting
salivary and lacrimal glands, causing dry mouth and dry eyes
,11.Q: What is geographic tongue? A: Benign inflammatory condition
characterized by irregular, map-like patches with raised white borders
12.Q: What is black hairy tongue? A: Elongation and discoloration of
filiform papillae, often due to poor oral hygiene or antibiotic use
13.Q: What is oral thrush? A: Candidal infection presenting as white
plaques that can be wiped off, revealing red base
14.Q: What is angular cheilitis? A: Cracks or fissures at the corners of the
mouth, often associated with candidal infection
15.Q: What is aphthous stomatitis? A: Recurrent painful ulcers with
yellow-white centers and red halos
16.Q: What are the three types of aphthous ulcers? A: Minor, major, and
herpetiform
17.Q: What is herpes simplex virus gingivostomatitis? A: Primary HSV
infection causing vesicles that rupture to form painful ulcers
18.Q: What is the difference between primary and recurrent HSV? A:
Primary affects keratinized and non-keratinized tissue; recurrent affects
only keratinized tissue
19.Q: What is oral hairy leukoplakia? A: White, corrugated lesions on
lateral tongue borders, associated with EBV and HIV
20.Q: What is a mucocele? A: Fluid-filled swelling caused by trauma to
minor salivary gland ducts
21.Q: What is a ranula? A: Large mucocele in the floor of the mouth from
sublingual gland
22.Q: What is a pyogenic granuloma? A: Reactive hyperplastic tissue, not
actually pyogenic or granulomatous
23.Q: What is peripheral giant cell granuloma? A: Reactive lesion
exclusive to gingiva, bluish-purple in color
24.Q: What is a peripheral fibroma? A: Reactive hyperplastic tissue
arising from gingiva, usually between teeth
25.Q: What is necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)? A: Acute infection
causing punched-out papillae, bleeding, and halitosis
26.Q: What bacteria are associated with NUG? A: Treponema and
Fusobacterium species
, 27.Q: What is oral cancer screening? A: Visual and tactile examination of
oral tissues for abnormalities
28.Q: What are the risk factors for oral cancer? A: Tobacco use, alcohol
consumption, HPV infection, sun exposure (lip), age, gender (male)
29.Q: What is the TNM staging system? A: Tumor size (T), lymph Node
involvement (N), and Metastasis (M)
30.Q: What is a biopsy? A: Removal of tissue for histopathologic
examination
31.Q: What are the types of biopsies? A: Incisional (partial removal) and
excisional (complete removal)
32.Q: What is dysplasia? A: Abnormal cellular development with potential
for malignant transformation
33.Q: What are the grades of dysplasia? A: Mild, moderate, and severe
34.Q: What is carcinoma in situ? A: Severe dysplasia confined to
epithelium without basement membrane invasion
35.Q: What is the most common salivary gland tumor? A: Pleomorphic
adenoma
36.Q: What is Warthin's tumor? A: Benign salivary gland tumor, usually
in parotid gland of older males
37.Q: What is mucoepidermoid carcinoma? A: Most common malignant
salivary gland tumor
38.Q: What is adenoid cystic carcinoma? A: Malignant salivary gland
tumor with perineural invasion tendency
39.Q: What is sialolithiasis? A: Salivary gland stones, most commonly in
submandibular gland
40.Q: What is sialadenitis? A: Inflammation of salivary glands
41.Q: What is Bell's palsy? A: Idiopathic facial nerve paralysis
42.Q: What is trigeminal neuralgia? A: Severe, sharp, shooting pain along
trigeminal nerve distribution
43.Q: What is burning mouth syndrome? A: Chronic burning sensation in
mouth without identifiable cause
BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100%
CORRECT ANSWERS
300 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. Q: What is the most common benign tumor of the oral cavity? A:
Fibroma (irritation fibroma)
2. Q: What is the characteristic clinical appearance of oral lichen
planus? A: White, lacy, reticular (net-like) striae with possible areas of
erythema and ulceration
3. Q: What is the most common malignant tumor of the oral cavity? A:
Squamous cell carcinoma
4. Q: What are Wickham's striae? A: White, lacy, reticular lines
characteristic of oral lichen planus
5. Q: What is the most common location for oral squamous cell
carcinoma? A: Lateral border of the tongue
6. Q: What is leukoplakia? A: A white patch or plaque that cannot be
rubbed off and cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any
other disease
7. Q: What is erythroplakia? A: A red patch or plaque that cannot be
characterized clinically or pathologically as any other condition
8. Q: What is the malignant transformation rate of oral leukoplakia? A:
Approximately 1-5%
9. Q: What is the most common cause of xerostomia? A: Medications
(especially anticholinergics, antidepressants, antihistamines)
10.Q: What is Sjögren's syndrome? A: An autoimmune disorder affecting
salivary and lacrimal glands, causing dry mouth and dry eyes
,11.Q: What is geographic tongue? A: Benign inflammatory condition
characterized by irregular, map-like patches with raised white borders
12.Q: What is black hairy tongue? A: Elongation and discoloration of
filiform papillae, often due to poor oral hygiene or antibiotic use
13.Q: What is oral thrush? A: Candidal infection presenting as white
plaques that can be wiped off, revealing red base
14.Q: What is angular cheilitis? A: Cracks or fissures at the corners of the
mouth, often associated with candidal infection
15.Q: What is aphthous stomatitis? A: Recurrent painful ulcers with
yellow-white centers and red halos
16.Q: What are the three types of aphthous ulcers? A: Minor, major, and
herpetiform
17.Q: What is herpes simplex virus gingivostomatitis? A: Primary HSV
infection causing vesicles that rupture to form painful ulcers
18.Q: What is the difference between primary and recurrent HSV? A:
Primary affects keratinized and non-keratinized tissue; recurrent affects
only keratinized tissue
19.Q: What is oral hairy leukoplakia? A: White, corrugated lesions on
lateral tongue borders, associated with EBV and HIV
20.Q: What is a mucocele? A: Fluid-filled swelling caused by trauma to
minor salivary gland ducts
21.Q: What is a ranula? A: Large mucocele in the floor of the mouth from
sublingual gland
22.Q: What is a pyogenic granuloma? A: Reactive hyperplastic tissue, not
actually pyogenic or granulomatous
23.Q: What is peripheral giant cell granuloma? A: Reactive lesion
exclusive to gingiva, bluish-purple in color
24.Q: What is a peripheral fibroma? A: Reactive hyperplastic tissue
arising from gingiva, usually between teeth
25.Q: What is necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)? A: Acute infection
causing punched-out papillae, bleeding, and halitosis
26.Q: What bacteria are associated with NUG? A: Treponema and
Fusobacterium species
, 27.Q: What is oral cancer screening? A: Visual and tactile examination of
oral tissues for abnormalities
28.Q: What are the risk factors for oral cancer? A: Tobacco use, alcohol
consumption, HPV infection, sun exposure (lip), age, gender (male)
29.Q: What is the TNM staging system? A: Tumor size (T), lymph Node
involvement (N), and Metastasis (M)
30.Q: What is a biopsy? A: Removal of tissue for histopathologic
examination
31.Q: What are the types of biopsies? A: Incisional (partial removal) and
excisional (complete removal)
32.Q: What is dysplasia? A: Abnormal cellular development with potential
for malignant transformation
33.Q: What are the grades of dysplasia? A: Mild, moderate, and severe
34.Q: What is carcinoma in situ? A: Severe dysplasia confined to
epithelium without basement membrane invasion
35.Q: What is the most common salivary gland tumor? A: Pleomorphic
adenoma
36.Q: What is Warthin's tumor? A: Benign salivary gland tumor, usually
in parotid gland of older males
37.Q: What is mucoepidermoid carcinoma? A: Most common malignant
salivary gland tumor
38.Q: What is adenoid cystic carcinoma? A: Malignant salivary gland
tumor with perineural invasion tendency
39.Q: What is sialolithiasis? A: Salivary gland stones, most commonly in
submandibular gland
40.Q: What is sialadenitis? A: Inflammation of salivary glands
41.Q: What is Bell's palsy? A: Idiopathic facial nerve paralysis
42.Q: What is trigeminal neuralgia? A: Severe, sharp, shooting pain along
trigeminal nerve distribution
43.Q: What is burning mouth syndrome? A: Chronic burning sensation in
mouth without identifiable cause
