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Exam (elaborations)

PHTLS 10th Edition Pre and Post-Test (2025/2026) – Updated Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Success Rate

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PHTLS 10th Edition Pre and Post-Test (2025/2026) – Updated Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Success Rate

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PHTLS 10th Edition Pre and Post-Test
(2025/2026) – Updated Questions and
Verified Answers | 100% Success Rate

1. What is the first step in the prehospital assessment of a trauma patient?
a) Perform the primary survey
b) Assess scene safety
c) Obtain a patient history
d) Initiate transport
Correct Answer: b) Assess scene safety
Rationale: Scene safety is the initial priority to protect responders, bystanders, and the
patient, preventing further harm (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 11).
2. What does the “X” in the XABCDE primary survey represent?
a) Expose/Environment
b) Exsanguinating hemorrhage
c) External injuries
d) Extremity assessment
Correct Answer: b) Exsanguinating hemorrhage
Rationale: The “X” prioritizes controlling life-threatening external bleeding before
addressing airway (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 34).
3. The displacement of tissue from a projectile’s path is known as:
a) Conization
b) Cavitation
c) Crepitation
d) Contusion
Correct Answer: b) Cavitation
Rationale: Cavitation refers to temporary and permanent tissue displacement caused by a
projectile’s energy transfer (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 67).
4. What is the most important factor in determining injury potential from energy
exchange?
a) Mass of the bodies involved
b) Velocity of the bodies involved
c) Density of the tissues involved
d) Surface area of the impact
Correct Answer: b) Velocity of the bodies involved
Rationale: Velocity is the primary determinant of kinetic energy (KE = ½ mv²),
influencing injury severity (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 65).
5. What is the preferred fluid for resuscitation in hemorrhagic shock?
a) 5% dextrose in water
b) 7% hypertonic saline

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c) Lactated Ringer’s
d) Hetastarch
Correct Answer: c) Lactated Ringer’s
Rationale: Isotonic crystalloids like Lactated Ringer’s remain in the vascular space
longer, enhancing volume without rapid extravasation (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 112).
6. What is a guideline for determining a critical fall height?
a) 1.5 times the patient’s height
b) 2 times the patient’s height
c) 3 times the patient’s height
d) 5 times the patient’s height
Correct Answer: c) 3 times the patient’s height
Rationale: Falls exceeding three times the patient’s height are considered critical due to
high energy transfer (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 71).
7. Which phase of a blast causes hollow organs to rupture?
a) Primary phase
b) Secondary phase
c) Tertiary phase
d) Quaternary phase
Correct Answer: a) Primary phase
Rationale: The primary phase involves a pressure wave that compresses and ruptures
hollow organs (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 75).
8. What does the “E” in the XABCDE primary survey stand for?
a) Edema
b) Eyes & ears
c) Expose/Environment
d) Electrical therapy
Correct Answer: c) Expose/Environment
Rationale: Exposing the patient and controlling the environment allow for thorough
assessment and prevention of hypothermia (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 34).
9. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive trauma
patient?
a) Blood
b) Vomitus
c) Tongue
d) Teeth
Correct Answer: c) Tongue
Rationale: The tongue often obstructs the airway in unresponsive patients due to loss of
muscle tone (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 46).
10. What is the most appropriate airway maneuver for a trauma patient with suspected
cervical spine injury?
a) Head-tilt chin-lift
b) Jaw thrust maneuver
c) Oropharyngeal airway insertion
d) Endotracheal intubation
Correct Answer: b) Jaw thrust maneuver

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Rationale: The jaw thrust opens the airway without moving the cervical spine,
minimizing risk of further injury (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 47).
11. A trauma patient has gurgling respirations. What is the first action?
a) Perform endotracheal intubation
b) Suction the airway
c) Apply a non-rebreather mask
d) Assist ventilations with a BVM
Correct Answer: b) Suction the airway
Rationale: Gurgling indicates airway obstruction by secretions or blood, requiring
immediate suctioning (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 48).
12. What is the best method to confirm endotracheal tube placement?
a) Pulse oximetry
b) Waveform capnography
c) Auscultation of breath sounds
d) Esophageal detector device
Correct Answer: b) Waveform capnography
Rationale: Waveform capnography provides definitive confirmation of ET tube
placement by detecting CO2 (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 50).
13. What is the most common type of shock in trauma patients?
a) Neurogenic
b) Septic
c) Hemorrhagic
d) Cardiogenic
Correct Answer: c) Hemorrhagic
Rationale: Hemorrhagic shock is the most frequent due to blood loss from trauma
(PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 108).
14. A patient with a deep laceration to the thigh has bright red, spurting blood. What is
the most appropriate initial action?
a) Apply direct pressure
b) Initiate rapid transport
c) Apply a tourniquet
d) Restore blood volume
Correct Answer: c) Apply a tourniquet
Rationale: Spurting arterial bleeding requires immediate tourniquet application if direct
pressure fails (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 104).
15. What is the target blood pressure for a trauma patient with suspected intra-
abdominal hemorrhage?
a) 60–70 mm Hg
b) 80–90 mm Hg
c) 100–110 mm Hg
d) 120–130 mm Hg
Correct Answer: b) 80–90 mm Hg
Rationale: Permissive hypotension (80–90 mm Hg) minimizes rebleeding while
maintaining perfusion in uncontrolled hemorrhage (PHTLS, 10th Ed., p. 113).
16. Which organ is most affected first by hypoperfusion in shock?
a) Brain

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