CPC Practice Exam 1 (2025) – COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
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1. A 62-year-old male patient undergoes a right hemicolectomy due to colon cancer. The surgery
involves resection of the ascending colon with primary anastomosis. Which CPT® code should
be reported?
A. 44140
B. 44141
C. 44160
D. 44205
Correct Answer: A. 44140
Rationale: CPT 44140 is used for colectomy, partial; with anastomosis. Since the case involved
a right hemicolectomy with primary anastomosis, 44140 is most appropriate. 44141 involves the
creation of an ileostomy or colostomy, which was not performed here.
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2. A 45-year-old female presents with chronic sinusitis. The ENT performs bilateral endoscopic
sinus surgery, including total ethmoidectomy and maxillary antrostomy. What CPT® codes are
reported?
A. 31255-50, 31267-50
B. 31255, 31267
C. 31254-50, 31256-50
D. 31256, 31276
Correct Answer: A. 31255-50, 31267-50
Rationale: CPT 31255 is for total ethmoidectomy, and 31267 is for maxillary antrostomy with
tissue removal. Since these are performed bilaterally, modifier -50 is used with each.
3. A patient has a 1.9 cm basal cell carcinoma removed from the forehead. The physician
performs a layered closure. What is the correct CPT® code(s) for this procedure?
A. 11642, 12052
B. 11643, 12052
C. 11642
D. 11442, 12052
Correct Answer: A. 11642, 12052
Rationale: Code 11642 is for excision of malignant skin lesion (1.1 to 2.0 cm) on the face, and
12052 is for layered closure (intermediate repair) of facial wounds.
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4. A provider performs a laparoscopic appendectomy due to acute appendicitis with rupture.
What CPT® code is appropriate?
A. 44970
B. 44960
C. 44950
D. 44979
Correct Answer: B. 44960
Rationale: 44960 is used for appendectomy with rupture and abscess. Since the appendix is
perforated, this is the correct code—even though laparoscopic was performed, there is no
dedicated code for ruptured laparoscopic appendectomy, so 44960 applies.
5. A 37-year-old female undergoes destruction of 6 actinic keratoses using cryosurgery. What is
the correct CPT® code?
A. 17000
B. 17003
C. 17000, 17003
D. 17004
Correct Answer: D. 17004
Rationale: CPT 17004 is reported when 15 or more premalignant lesions are destroyed.
However, for 6 lesions, report 17000 for the first lesion and 17003 ×5 units. The correct
combination is C: 17000, 17003 ×5, but since that isn’t listed precisely, a correction should be
made—C is actually correct when units are applied properly.
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6. A physician sees a new patient in the office for a comprehensive history, comprehensive exam,
and high complexity MDM. Which E/M code is appropriate?
A. 99202
B. 99203
C. 99204
D. 99205
Correct Answer: C. 99204
Rationale: CPT 99204 is used for a new patient with comprehensive history and exam and
moderate to high complexity decision making.
7. A patient receives a left heart catheterization and coronary angiography with injection of
contrast and imaging. Which CPT® codes are appropriate?
A. 93458
B. 93452
C. 93454
D. 93460
Correct Answer: A. 93458
Rationale: CPT 93458 includes left heart catheterization, coronary angiography, and left
ventriculography with imaging and interpretation.