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NUR2392 Final Exam 2024/2025 – Multidimensional Care II (MDC 2) | Rasmussen | Real Questions and Correct Answers

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NUR2392 Final Exam 2024/2025 – Multidimensional Care II (MDC 2) | Rasmussen | Real Questions and Correct Answers

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NUR2392 Final Exam
2024/2025 – Multidimensional
Care II (MDC 2) | Rasmussen
| Real Questions and Correct
Answers
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has a respiratory rate
of 28 breaths/min. What should the nurse do first?
a) Administer a sedative
b) Assess oxygen saturation
c) Restrict fluid intake
d) Encourage vigorous exercise
Rationale: Elevated respiratory rate in COPD indicates potential hypoxia, requiring
immediate assessment of oxygen saturation to guide therapy, per Rasmussen’s MDC 2
respiratory care principles.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed lisinopril. What should the nurse monitor?
a) Blood glucose
b) Blood pressure
c) Respiratory rate
d) Urine specific gravity
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hypotension, necessitating blood
pressure monitoring, per Rasmussen’s MDC 2 cardiovascular care.
3. A client with type 2 diabetes has a blood glucose of 350 mg/dL. What should the
nurse assess for?
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Hyperglycemic symptoms
c) Hypokalemia
d) Joint inflammation
Rationale: A blood glucose of 350 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, requiring assessment
for symptoms like polyuria or thirst, per Rasmussen’s MDC 2 endocrine care.
4. A client post-myocardial infarction (MI) reports nausea and diaphoresis. What
should the nurse do?
a) Administer antacids
b) Notify the healthcare provider
c) Encourage ambulation
d) Restrict fluids

, 2


Rationale: Nausea and diaphoresis may indicate ongoing ischemia post-MI, requiring
immediate provider notification, per Rasmussen’s MDC 2 cardiovascular protocols.
5. A client with pneumonia has a fever of 101.5°F. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Restrict oxygen therapy
b) Administer antipyretics as prescribed
c) Encourage a high-sodium diet
d) Limit fluid intake
Rationale: Antipyretics manage fever to improve comfort and reduce metabolic demand
in pneumonia, per Rasmussen’s MDC 2 infection care.
6. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) reports leg cramps. What should the
nurse assess?
a) Blood glucose
b) Electrolyte imbalances
c) Lung sounds
d) Joint mobility
Rationale: Leg cramps in CKD often result from electrolyte imbalances like
hypocalcemia, per Rasmussen’s MDC 2 renal care principles.
7. A client with asthma is prescribed a short-acting beta-agonist. What should the
nurse teach?
a) Use daily for prevention
b) Use for acute symptoms
c) Avoid during exercise
d) Restrict with oxygen
Rationale: Short-acting beta-agonists are rescue medications for acute asthma symptoms,
per Rasmussen’s MDC 2 respiratory care.
8. A client with heart failure has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. What should the
nurse do first?
a) Encourage potassium-rich foods
b) Notify the healthcare provider
c) Administer a diuretic
d) Restrict fluids
Rationale: Hypokalemia in heart failure is dangerous and requires provider intervention,
per Rasmussen’s MDC 2 cardiovascular care.
9. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a pH of 7.20. What should the nurse
monitor?
a) Blood pressure
b) Cardiac rhythm
c) Urine output
d) Joint mobility
Rationale: Acidosis in DKA can cause arrhythmias, necessitating cardiac monitoring, per
Rasmussen’s MDC 2 endocrine care.
10. A client with COPD reports increased sputum production. What should the nurse
encourage?
a) Suppress coughing
b) Increase fluid intake
c) Restrict oxygen

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