NR-325 NR 325 Adult Health Nursing II –
Final Exam Questions and Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) with
Rationales 2025 Chamberlain College Of
Nursing
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents with serum potassium
level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following interventions should the nurse
anticipate first?
A. Provide a potassium-restricted diet
B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
C. Offer oral fluids to promote potassium excretion
D. Prepare the client for dialysis
Kayexalate binds potassium in the intestines and removes it through the
stool, helping to lower serum potassium. This is a priority for
hyperkalemia management.
2. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
,A. Jugular vein distention
B. Peripheral edema
C. Crackles in the lungs
D. Hepatomegaly
Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, manifesting as
crackles, due to fluid backing up into the lungs.
3. Which laboratory value indicates effective treatment in a client receiving
warfarin for atrial fibrillation?
A. INR of 1.0
B. INR of 2.5
C. INR of 4.5
D. INR of 5.0
The therapeutic INR range for a client on warfarin is generally 2.0 to
3.0. An INR of 2.5 indicates effective anticoagulation.
4. A client with pneumonia has ABG results: pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24
mEq/L. What condition does this reflect?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
,The low pH and elevated PaCO₂ indicate respiratory acidosis, commonly
seen in pneumonia due to impaired gas exchange.
5. A nurse is caring for a client post-thyroidectomy. Which finding should be
reported immediately?
A. Hoarseness and stridor
B. Mild sore throat
C. Slight neck edema
D. Difficulty sleeping
Hoarseness and stridor may indicate airway obstruction from laryngeal
nerve damage or swelling and require immediate intervention.
6. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with hepatic
encephalopathy?
A. Increase protein intake
B. Restrict protein intake
C. Encourage high-fat meals
D. Eat frequent high-carbohydrate snacks
Protein restriction is needed to reduce ammonia levels, a key
contributor to hepatic encephalopathy.
, 7. A client with COPD is receiving oxygen at 5 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse
should monitor for which complication?
A. Hypoxia
B. Bronchospasm
C. Respiratory depression
D. Pneumothorax
High-flow oxygen in COPD can suppress the hypoxic drive, leading to
respiratory depression.
8. Which assessment finding indicates peritonitis in a client with a ruptured
appendix?
A. Soft, non-distended abdomen
B. Board-like abdominal rigidity
C. Right upper quadrant tenderness
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
A board-like abdomen is a classic sign of peritonitis, indicating
inflammation of the peritoneum.
9. A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client with pancreatitis. Which finding is
expected?
A. Decreased serum lipase
B. Elevated serum amylase
Final Exam Questions and Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) with
Rationales 2025 Chamberlain College Of
Nursing
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents with serum potassium
level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following interventions should the nurse
anticipate first?
A. Provide a potassium-restricted diet
B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
C. Offer oral fluids to promote potassium excretion
D. Prepare the client for dialysis
Kayexalate binds potassium in the intestines and removes it through the
stool, helping to lower serum potassium. This is a priority for
hyperkalemia management.
2. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
,A. Jugular vein distention
B. Peripheral edema
C. Crackles in the lungs
D. Hepatomegaly
Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, manifesting as
crackles, due to fluid backing up into the lungs.
3. Which laboratory value indicates effective treatment in a client receiving
warfarin for atrial fibrillation?
A. INR of 1.0
B. INR of 2.5
C. INR of 4.5
D. INR of 5.0
The therapeutic INR range for a client on warfarin is generally 2.0 to
3.0. An INR of 2.5 indicates effective anticoagulation.
4. A client with pneumonia has ABG results: pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24
mEq/L. What condition does this reflect?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
,The low pH and elevated PaCO₂ indicate respiratory acidosis, commonly
seen in pneumonia due to impaired gas exchange.
5. A nurse is caring for a client post-thyroidectomy. Which finding should be
reported immediately?
A. Hoarseness and stridor
B. Mild sore throat
C. Slight neck edema
D. Difficulty sleeping
Hoarseness and stridor may indicate airway obstruction from laryngeal
nerve damage or swelling and require immediate intervention.
6. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with hepatic
encephalopathy?
A. Increase protein intake
B. Restrict protein intake
C. Encourage high-fat meals
D. Eat frequent high-carbohydrate snacks
Protein restriction is needed to reduce ammonia levels, a key
contributor to hepatic encephalopathy.
, 7. A client with COPD is receiving oxygen at 5 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse
should monitor for which complication?
A. Hypoxia
B. Bronchospasm
C. Respiratory depression
D. Pneumothorax
High-flow oxygen in COPD can suppress the hypoxic drive, leading to
respiratory depression.
8. Which assessment finding indicates peritonitis in a client with a ruptured
appendix?
A. Soft, non-distended abdomen
B. Board-like abdominal rigidity
C. Right upper quadrant tenderness
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
A board-like abdomen is a classic sign of peritonitis, indicating
inflammation of the peritoneum.
9. A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client with pancreatitis. Which finding is
expected?
A. Decreased serum lipase
B. Elevated serum amylase
