BIO 202 Anatomy and Physiology Midterm Latest Exam 2025

The following hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland. Its two primary functions are to retain water in the body and to constrict blood vessels by regulating the body's retention of water by acting to increase water reabsorption in the kidney's collecting ducts. As a result, blood volume and osmotic pressure in the body remain constant: A) Aldosterone B) Anti-Diuretic Hormone C) Nitric Oxide D) Atrial Natriuretic Peptide E) Erythropoietin - Correct Ans-B) Anti-Diuretic Hormone 2) An individual who presents with a blood type of "O negative" can ________. A) donate to all blood types, with the exception of blood containing the presence of the Rh antigen B) donate to all blood types, regardless of the presence or absence or the Rh antigen C) receive any blood type, including the presence of the Rh antigen on RBCs E) receive any blood type in moderate amounts, regardless of the presence or absence or the Rh antigen - Correct Ans-A) donate to all blood types, with the exception of blood containing the presence of the Rh antigen The process by which all the formed elements of the blood develop from its tissue of origin is called: A) erythropoiesis B) hematopoiesis C) erythrocytosis D) hemostasias E) thrombopoiesis - Correct Ans-B) hematopoiesis ) No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in what cell: A) monocytes B) basophils C) eosinophils D) neutrophils E) all of the above - Correct Ans-A) monocytes When anti-A serum and anti-B serum agglutinate on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type is considered to be: A) A B) B C) O D) AB E) Rh+ - Correct Ans-D) AB A specific anemic condition in which RBCs are morphologically characterized as microcytic, hypochromic cells. (Most common type of anemia): A) B12 deficiency anemia B) iron deficiency anemia C) hemolytic anemia D) hemorrhagic anemia E) thalassemia - Correct Ans-B) iron deficiency anemia In reference to the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of coagulation, where do they converge: A) Factor V B) Factor XI C) Factor X D) Factor III E) Factor XIII - Correct Ans-C) Factor X The following nutrient is needed for normal clot formation. Although it is not directly involved, it is used in the synthesis of 4 clotting factors: A) Vitamin B12 B) Iron C) Intrinsic Factor D) Folic acid E) Vitamin K - Correct Ans-E) Vitamin K Which sequence is correct for the following events? 1. fibrinogen → fibrin 2. clot retraction 3. formation of thromboplastin 4. prothrombin → thrombin A) 3, 4, 1, 2 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 4, 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 2, 1, 4E) 2, 3, 1, 4 - Correct Ans-A) 3, 4, 1, 2 The majority of TPO that stimulates the formation of clot-forming cells is found in the following tissue: A) red bone marrow B) plasma of the blood C) spleen D) liver E) platelets Add kidney for next time - Correct Ans-D) liver Fibrinolysis removes unneeded clots through the action of the fibrin-digesting enzyme, ______. A) plasminogen B) thrombin C) Factor X D) plasmin E) Activated thromboxane (XA2) - Correct Ans-D) plasmin The following WBC is responsible for attacking and destroying tumor infected cells and virus-infected cells? A) macrophages B) lymphocytes C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) basophils - Correct Ans-B) lymphocytes Which of the following is not responsible for having a vasoconstrictive effect on blood vessels: A) ANP B) ADP C) serotonin D) thromboxane A2 E) endothelin - Correct Ans-A) ANP The following is not a major constitute of plasma: A) albumin B) electrolytes C) CO2 D) platelets E) immunoglobulins - Correct Ans-D) platelets Which of the following would be the most likely trigger for erythropoiesis? A) hypoxia B) decreased tissue demand for oxygen C) an increased number of RBCs D) moving to a lower altitude E) fighting off an acute bacterial infection - Correct Ans-A) hypoxia Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow? A) Endothelin B) thrombopoietin (TPO) C) Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF) D) Colony stimulating Factors (CSF) E) erythropoietin (EPO) - Correct Ans- E) erythropoietin (EPO) _______is caused by a point mutation in the β-globin chain of hemoglobin, causing the hydrophilic amino acid glutamic acid to be replaced with the hydrophobic amino acid valine at the sixth position. The β-globin gene is found on chromosome 11. This results in the following condition: A) pernicious anemia B) β -thalassemia C) iron deficiency anemia D) sickle cell anemia E) aplastic anemia - Correct Ans-D) sickle cell anemia )When these particular leukocytes migrate into the interstitial spaces via chemotactic stimuli, they transform from small WBCs into large phagocytic cells: A) neutrophil B) basophil C) eosinophil D) macrophage E) lymphocyte - Correct Ans-D) macrophage A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________. A) iron deficiency anemia B) polycythemia vera C) pernicious anemia D) sickle-cell anemia E) thalassemia - Correct Ans-C) pernicious anemia A male patient 21 years of age comes into urgent care due to the progressive onset of malaise, lethargy, fatigue and a general sense of not feeling like himself. Upon clinical interrogation you discover that 4 weeks prior he had traveled to the rain forest of South America and had lived off the land, including drinking and bathing in a local river. Lab results demonstrate a Helminthic (parasitic) infection. What WBC is most likely elevated in this individual? A) neutrophils B) basophils C) eosinophils D) macrophagesE) lymphocytes - Correct Ans-C) eosinophil The following statement is not true of the coagulation cascade: A) The intrinsic pathway is a faster pathway, while the extrinsic is slower but more prolonged. B) the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways both converge on factor X. C) Prothrombin activator formed in both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways D) Prothrombin activator catalyzes transformation of prothrombin to active enzyme thrombin E) Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen to fibrin - Correct Ans-A) The intrinsic pathway is a faster pathway, while the extrinsic is slower but more prolonged. Ferritin is a protein used to: A) transport iron in the blood. B) store iron in the liver. C) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes. D) synthesize iron. E) absorb iron across intestinal cells - Correct Ans-B) store iron in the liver. A 24-year-old male patient of Mediterranean decent comes into the doctors' office due to chronic fatigue, lethargy, and decreased drive. HCT (35%) and Hb (11mg/dl) levels are low. Genetic testing confirms the presence of a mutation in the alpha chain of his hemoglobin. Based on the information provided, what type of blood pathology does this patient most likely have? A) sickle cell anemia B) iron deficiency anemia C) hemophilia D) Thalassemia E) B12 deficiency anemia - Correct Ans-D) Thalassemia A 22-year-old male patient of Hispanic decent is admitted to the hospital due to a petechial rash and purpura on his upper limbs and back. His clotting times (INR and PT) are double the normal limits. His vital signs are as follows: temperature is 98.8; heart rate is 95 beats per minute; respiratory rate is 18 per minute; blood pressure 125/85mmHg. A complete blood count (CBC) is conducted and demonstrates the following: Hb of 15mg/dl; HCT of 55%. What is the best course of action knowing the information you have: A) cross type and match (ABO blood group) for 1 pint of blood B) infusion of Fresh Frozen Plasma C) centrifuge whole blood and infuse serum D) administer parenteral vitamin B12, folic acid, and ironE) administer an anticoagulant like heparin while in the hospital and ensure that an oral dose of warfarin is part of his treatment upon his discharge. - Correct Ans-B) infusion of Fresh Frozen Plasma Regarding the question above, what is the most likely type of disease this patient is presenting with: A) sickle cell anemia B) polycythemia vera C) iron deficiency anemia D) hemophilia E) leukopenia - Correct Ans-D) hemophilia A 50-year-old man presents to clinic with severe central chest pain after going for a run on a hot summer day. The chest pain does not resolve with rest or nitroglycerine. He is obese, has a history of hypertension, and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. His father died from a myocardial infarction at the age of 54 years. On examination, his blood pressure is 144/92 mmHg with a heart rate of 82 bpm. He is diagnosed as having an MI. What tissue has most greatly been affected regarding the pumping action of his heart: a) Epicardium b) Pericardium c) Supacardium d) Myocardium e) Endocardium - Correct Ans-d) Myocardium What choice below will result in a decrease in heart rate and/or force of contraction: a) stimulation of vagus nerve b) release of norepinephrine c) hypercalcemia d) increased body temperature e) increased physical activity - Correct Ans-a) stimulation of vagus nerve What are the three most important factors that affect stroke volume. a) pulse, pressure, time b) Preload, heart rate, Afterload. c) Heart rate, Contractility, Stroke volume d) preload, afterload, stroke volume e) inotropy, Preload, Afterload - Correct Ans-e) inotropy, Preload, Afterload The correct sequential order of the intrinsic cardiac conduction system is: a) SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, subendocardial conducting network. b) SA node, AV node, bundle branches, AV bundle, subendocardial conducting network. c) AV node, SA node, AV bundle, bundle branches, subendocardial conducting network. d) SA node, AV bundle, AV node, bundle branches, subendocardial conducting network. e) SA node, bundle branches, AV bundle, AV node, subendocardial conducting network. - Correct Ans-a) SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, subendocardial conducting network The statement below describes what phase in the action potential in a ventricular muscle fiber: Ca2+ channels are gradually inactivated, leading to a persistent outflow of K+, which now exceeds Ca2+ inflow, which brings the membrane potential back towards it's resting potential of −90 mV to prepare the cell for a new cycle of depolarization. Returning Na+ and Ca2+ ions to the extracellular environment, and K+ ions to the cell interior restore normal transmembrane ionic concentration gradients. The pumps involved includes the sarcolemmal Na+-Ca2+ exchanger, Ca2+-ATPase and Na+-K+-ATPase. A) phase 3 B) phase 4 C) phase 1 D) phase 2 E) phase 0 - Correct Ans-A) phase 3 The second heart sound (S2) is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle? A) ventricular filling B) isovolumetric contraction C) ventricular ejection D) isovolumetric relaxation E) atrial systole - Correct Ans-B) isovolumetric contraction Compared to skeletal or smooth muscle, what is a true statement regarding the morphology that is found exclusively in cardiac muscle: A) contain intercalated discs B) lacks striations C) have more nuclei per cell D) cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells E) use of calmodulin to generate muscular contraction - Correct Ans-A) contain intercalated discs Through which structure does blood pass from the right atrium to the right ventricle? a) Bicuspid atrioventicular valve b) tricuspid semilunar valve c) Tricuspid atrioventicular valve d) Mitral semilumar valve e) aortic semilunar valve - Correct Ans-c) Tricuspid atrioventicular valve What structure listed below is not found in the atria: A) Pectinate muscles B) crista terminalis C) AV node D) Trabeculae carneae E) coronary sinus - Correct Ans-D) Trabeculae carneae Select the correct statement regarding the heart valves. A) The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle. B) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle. C) The tricuspid and bicuspid semilunar valves separate atria from ventricles D) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur. E) Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow of blood into the heart. - Correct Ans-D) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur. Rapid, irregular contractions; useless for pumping blood would manifest as what on an EKG: A) supraventricular tachycardia B) ventricular tachycardia C) atrial fibrillation D) ventricular fibrillation E) 3rd degree heart block - Correct Ans-D) ventricular fibrillation Which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate? a) Midbrain b) Cerebrum c) Medulla oblongata d) Cerebellum e) Thalamus - Correct Ans-c) Medulla oblongata If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, and thus a faster and stronger heart beat, the following effect would not occur: A) vagal stimulatory effect B) positive Dromotropic effect C) positive Inotropic effect D) positive Lusitropic effect E) positive Chronotropic effect - Correct Ans-A) vagal stimulatory effect Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood during right ventricular systole? A) venae cavae B) pulmonary trunk C) aorta D) pulmonary veins E) tricuspid valve - Correct Ans-B) pulmonary trunk What statement best defines isovolumetric contraction: A) refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers B) occurs while the AV valves are open C) occurs immediately after the aortic and pulmonary valves close D) occurs only in people with heart valve defects E) refers to the short period during atrial systole when the atria are completely closed chambers and blood is being ejected from the ventricles at the same time - Correct Ans-A) refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers The volume remaining in each ventricle at the end of systole is the______ A) stroke volume (SV) B) cardiac output (CO) C) end-systolic volume (ESV) D) cardiac reserve (CR)E) end-diastolic volume (EDV) - Correct Ans-C) end systolic volume (ESV) ardiac output (CO) equals: A) preload x afterload B) heart rate x stroke volume C) end diastolic volume - end systolic volum