NURS 6501 Final Exam 2025 Actual – Advanced Pathophysiology | Verified Questions | Graded A

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NURS 6501 Final Exam 2025 Actual – Advanced
Pathophysiology | Verified Questions | Graded A
1. What is the primary mechanism of cellular injury in hypoxia?
A. Increased ATP production
B. Mitochondrial dysfunction
C. Enhanced protein synthesis
D. Increased membrane permeability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoxia deprives cells of oxygen, impairing mitochondrial oxidative
phosphorylation, leading to reduced ATP production and cellular dysfunction. Increased
ATP production is incorrect, protein synthesis decreases, and membrane permeability
changes are secondary.
2. Which cellular adaptation occurs in response to chronic irritation in Barrett’s esophagus?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Dysplasia
D. Atrophy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Barrett’s esophagus involves metaplasia, where squamous epithelium is
replaced by columnar epithelium due to chronic acid reflux. Hyperplasia increases cell
number, dysplasia is precancerous, and atrophy reduces cell size.
3. What is the hallmark of apoptosis?
A. Cell swelling and rupture
B. Programmed cell death with minimal inflammation
C. Tissue necrosis with bacterial invasion
D. Increased cell proliferation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is a controlled process of programmed cell death with minimal
inflammation, unlike necrosis, which involves cell swelling and rupture. Necrosis may
involve bacteria, and proliferation is unrelated.
4. Which type of necrosis is most common in myocardial infarction?
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coagulative necrosis, due to ischemia, is typical in myocardial infarction,
preserving cell structure. Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain, caseous in
tuberculosis, and fat necrosis in pancreatitis.
5. What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus in the cell?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Lipid metabolism
C. Modification and packaging of proteins
D. Energy production

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Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages proteins for secretion or
use. Protein synthesis occurs in ribosomes, lipid metabolism in the smooth ER, and
energy production in mitochondria.
6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most associated with metabolic acidosis?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metabolic acidosis causes hyperkalemia as hydrogen ions enter cells,
displacing potassium into the bloodstream. Hypokalemia occurs in alkalosis,
hyponatremia in fluid overload, and hypercalcemia is unrelated.
7. What is the primary cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance
B. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells
C. Excessive glucagon production
D. Pancreatic enzyme deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells,
leading to insulin deficiency. Insulin resistance is type 2 diabetes, glucagon excess is
secondary, and enzyme deficiency affects digestion.
8. Which condition is characterized by excessive cortisol production?
A. Addison’s disease
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome involves excessive cortisol, often from adrenal tumors or
ACTH overproduction. Addison’s is cortisol deficiency, hypothyroidism is thyroid
hormone deficiency, and diabetes insipidus involves ADH.
9. What is the primary role of the sodium-potassium pump?
A. Synthesize ATP
B. Maintain membrane potential
C. Produce neurotransmitters
D. Regulate pH
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The sodium-potassium pump maintains membrane potential by transporting
sodium out and potassium into the cell using ATP. It does not synthesize ATP, produce
neurotransmitters, or directly regulate pH.
10. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with contact dermatitis?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Correct Answer: D

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Rationale: Contact dermatitis is a type IV (delayed, T-cell-mediated) hypersensitivity
reaction. Type I is immediate (e.g., anaphylaxis), type II is cytotoxic, and type III
involves immune complexes.
11. What is the primary cause of edema in heart failure?
A. Decreased capillary permeability
B. Increased hydrostatic pressure
C. Enhanced lymphatic drainage
D. Reduced plasma oncotic pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heart failure increases hydrostatic pressure due to fluid backup, causing
edema. Decreased permeability reduces edema, lymphatic drainage clears fluid, and
oncotic pressure changes are secondary.
12. Which condition is associated with a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Gout
D. Fibromyalgia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune disease, is associated
with a positive ANA test. Osteoarthritis, gout, and fibromyalgia are not autoimmune and
lack this marker.
13. What is the primary function of lysosomes?
A. Energy production
B. Intracellular digestion
C. Lipid synthesis
D. Protein modification
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes for digesting waste and damaged
organelles. Energy production occurs in mitochondria, lipid synthesis in the smooth ER,
and protein modification in the Golgi apparatus.
14. Which condition is characterized by demyelination of the central nervous system?
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Multiple sclerosis involves autoimmune demyelination of CNS neurons.
Parkinson’s affects dopamine neurons, Alzheimer’s involves plaques/tangles, and ALS
affects motor neurons.
15. What is the primary cause of respiratory acidosis?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoventilation
C. Increased bicarbonate
D. Decreased carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoventilation causes CO2 retention, leading to respiratory acidosis.