ATI Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Assessment
UPDATED
Real Exam-Level Questions, Verified Answers with
Expert Explanations,
100% A+ Mastery Guaranteed
80 NCLEX-Style Questions with Verified Solutions
Instructions
This assessment contains 80 unique NCLEX-style multiple-choice questions covering Medical-
Surgical, Obstetrics, Pharmacology, Psychiatric, Pediatric, and Leadership nursing domains.
Each question has four options (A–D). Select the best answer. Brief rationales are provided for
clarity. All questions are original and formatted for PDF export.
Questions
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which finding indicates
the medication is effective?
A. Decreased peripheral edema
B. Increased heart rate
C. Elevated blood pressure
D. Decreased urine output
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, reduces fluid overload in heart failure, decreasing
peripheral edema. Increased heart rate (B) or blood pressure (C) are not desired effects,
and decreased urine output (D) indicates ineffectiveness.
2. A primigravida at 38 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Instruct the client to drink water and rest.
B. Perform a nonstress test (NST).
C. Schedule an ultrasound for next week.
1
, D. Reassure the client this is normal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal distress, requiring immediate
assessment via NST. Hydration (A) is secondary, scheduling an ultrasound (C) delays
care, and reassurance (D) is inappropriate without evaluation.
3. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to limit?
A. Oranges
B. Spinach
C. Chicken
D. Rice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can antagonize warfarin’s anticoagulant
effect. Oranges (A), chicken (C), and rice (D) do not significantly affect warfarin.
4. A client with schizophrenia reports hearing voices commanding self-harm. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
B. Assess the client’s risk for self-harm.
C. Administer a PRN antipsychotic.
D. Distract the client with activities.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Command hallucinations pose a safety risk, requiring immediate risk assess-
ment. Ignoring voices (A) or distraction (D) is ineffective, and medication (C) requires
physician approval.
5. A 4-year-old with sickle cell anemia is admitted with a vaso-occlusive crisis. What is the
nurse’s priority intervention?
A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min.
B. Provide IV hydration.
C. Apply warm compresses to joints.
D. Restrict oral fluid intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV hydration reduces blood viscosity and promotes circulation in vaso-occlusive
crisis. Oxygen (A) is indicated for hypoxia, warm compresses (C) are secondary, and fluid
restriction (D) is contraindicated.
6. A nurse observes a colleague administering medication without checking the client’s iden-
tity. What is the nurse’s best action?
A. Report the incident to the supervisor immediately.
B. Discuss the error privately with the colleague.
2
, C. Ignore the incident to maintain teamwork.
D. Document the error in the client’s chart.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Addressing the colleague privately promotes learning and safety. Immediate
reporting (A) escalates unnecessarily, ignoring (C) risks harm, and documenting (D) is
inappropriate without intervention.
7. A client post-appendectomy reports severe abdominal pain and fever. What should the
nurse suspect?
A. Normal postoperative recovery
B. Peritonitis
C. Constipation
D. Atelectasis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe pain and fever post-appendectomy suggest peritonitis, a surgical com-
plication. Normal recovery (A) lacks these symptoms, constipation (C) doesn’t cause
fever, and atelectasis (D) affects lungs.
8. A postpartum client develops a temperature of 100.8°F on day 2. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Encourage increased fluid intake.
B. Assess for signs of infection.
C. Administer acetaminophen.
D. Document the finding and monitor.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fever postpartum may indicate infection (e.g., endometritis), requiring imme-
diate assessment. Fluids (A) or acetaminophen (C) are secondary, and monitoring alone
(D) delays care.
9. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What should the nurse include in
teaching?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
B. Monitor for signs of lactic acidosis.
C. Expect weight gain as a side effect.
D. Discontinue if blood glucose is normal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, a rare but serious side effect. It’s taken
with meals (not A), may cause weight loss (not C), and should not be stopped without
guidance (D).
3
UPDATED
Real Exam-Level Questions, Verified Answers with
Expert Explanations,
100% A+ Mastery Guaranteed
80 NCLEX-Style Questions with Verified Solutions
Instructions
This assessment contains 80 unique NCLEX-style multiple-choice questions covering Medical-
Surgical, Obstetrics, Pharmacology, Psychiatric, Pediatric, and Leadership nursing domains.
Each question has four options (A–D). Select the best answer. Brief rationales are provided for
clarity. All questions are original and formatted for PDF export.
Questions
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which finding indicates
the medication is effective?
A. Decreased peripheral edema
B. Increased heart rate
C. Elevated blood pressure
D. Decreased urine output
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, reduces fluid overload in heart failure, decreasing
peripheral edema. Increased heart rate (B) or blood pressure (C) are not desired effects,
and decreased urine output (D) indicates ineffectiveness.
2. A primigravida at 38 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Instruct the client to drink water and rest.
B. Perform a nonstress test (NST).
C. Schedule an ultrasound for next week.
1
, D. Reassure the client this is normal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal distress, requiring immediate
assessment via NST. Hydration (A) is secondary, scheduling an ultrasound (C) delays
care, and reassurance (D) is inappropriate without evaluation.
3. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to limit?
A. Oranges
B. Spinach
C. Chicken
D. Rice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can antagonize warfarin’s anticoagulant
effect. Oranges (A), chicken (C), and rice (D) do not significantly affect warfarin.
4. A client with schizophrenia reports hearing voices commanding self-harm. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
B. Assess the client’s risk for self-harm.
C. Administer a PRN antipsychotic.
D. Distract the client with activities.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Command hallucinations pose a safety risk, requiring immediate risk assess-
ment. Ignoring voices (A) or distraction (D) is ineffective, and medication (C) requires
physician approval.
5. A 4-year-old with sickle cell anemia is admitted with a vaso-occlusive crisis. What is the
nurse’s priority intervention?
A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min.
B. Provide IV hydration.
C. Apply warm compresses to joints.
D. Restrict oral fluid intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV hydration reduces blood viscosity and promotes circulation in vaso-occlusive
crisis. Oxygen (A) is indicated for hypoxia, warm compresses (C) are secondary, and fluid
restriction (D) is contraindicated.
6. A nurse observes a colleague administering medication without checking the client’s iden-
tity. What is the nurse’s best action?
A. Report the incident to the supervisor immediately.
B. Discuss the error privately with the colleague.
2
, C. Ignore the incident to maintain teamwork.
D. Document the error in the client’s chart.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Addressing the colleague privately promotes learning and safety. Immediate
reporting (A) escalates unnecessarily, ignoring (C) risks harm, and documenting (D) is
inappropriate without intervention.
7. A client post-appendectomy reports severe abdominal pain and fever. What should the
nurse suspect?
A. Normal postoperative recovery
B. Peritonitis
C. Constipation
D. Atelectasis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe pain and fever post-appendectomy suggest peritonitis, a surgical com-
plication. Normal recovery (A) lacks these symptoms, constipation (C) doesn’t cause
fever, and atelectasis (D) affects lungs.
8. A postpartum client develops a temperature of 100.8°F on day 2. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Encourage increased fluid intake.
B. Assess for signs of infection.
C. Administer acetaminophen.
D. Document the finding and monitor.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fever postpartum may indicate infection (e.g., endometritis), requiring imme-
diate assessment. Fluids (A) or acetaminophen (C) are secondary, and monitoring alone
(D) delays care.
9. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What should the nurse include in
teaching?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
B. Monitor for signs of lactic acidosis.
C. Expect weight gain as a side effect.
D. Discontinue if blood glucose is normal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, a rare but serious side effect. It’s taken
with meals (not A), may cause weight loss (not C), and should not be stopped without
guidance (D).
3
