EVOLVE HESI PHARM EXAM NEWEST COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS||ALREADY GRADED A+(NEW BRAND)
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which
prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is at least likely to exacerbate
asthma? -CORRECT ANSWERMetoprolol Tartrate( Lopressor)
The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor) (C), a beta2
blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction.
Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase asthmatic
symptoms. Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective antihypertensive
agent used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk for bronchoconstriction due to its
nonselective beta blocker action. Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs,
causing bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other obstructive
pulmonary disorders.
A male client who has been taking propranolol ( inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse the
healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal
for the past three months. Which instruction should the use provide? -CORRECT
ANSWERAsk the health care provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week.
Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to prevent rebound
cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over one to two weeks (C), should be
recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias.
Abrupt cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent may precipitate tachycardia and rebound
hypertension, so gradual weaning should be recommended.
A client who is taking clonidine ( Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional
assessment should the nurse make? -CORRECT ANSWERHow long has the client been
taking the medication
,Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with continued use
becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been on the medication (A) provides
information to direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not relevant.
The nurse is preparing to admister atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who is scheduled for
a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain th reason for the prescribed medication.
What response is best for the nurse to provide? -CORRECT ANSWERDecrease the risk of
bradycardia during surgery
Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the automaticity of the sinoatrial node
and prevent a dangerous reduction in heart rate (B) during surgical anesthesia. (A, C and D) do
not address the therapeutic action of atropine use perioperatively.
An 80 year old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant
medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urniary retention
in this geriatric client. ? -CORRECT ANSWERTricyclic antidepressants
Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C), can exacerbate
urinary retention associated with opioids in the older client. Although tricyclic antidepressants
and antihistamines with opioids can exacerbate urinary retention, the concurrent use of (A and
B) with opioids do not. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents (D) can increase the risk for
bleeding, but do not increase urinary retention with opioids (D).
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to administering a
scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter Which action should the nurse
implement? -CORRECT ANSWERAdmister the dose as prescribed
Verapamil slows sinoatrial (SA) nodal automaticity, delays atrioventricular (AV) nodal
conduction, which slows the ventricular rate, and is used to treat atrial flutter, so (A) should be
implemented, based on the client's heart rate and blood pressure. (B and C) are not indicated.
(D) delays the administration of the scheduled dose.
,following an emergency Cesarean delivery the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfed
her newborn . the client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which info should the nurse
provide? -CORRECT ANSWERStimulate contraction of the uterus
When the infant suckles at the breast, oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary to
stimulates the "letdown" reflex, which causes the release of colostrum, and contracts the uterus
(C) to prevent uterine hemorrhage. (A and B) do not support the client's need in the immediate
period after the emergency delivery. Although maternal-newborn bonding (D) is facilitated by
early breastfeeding, the priority is uterine contraction stimulation.
The nurse identifies a clients needs and formulates th nursing problem of " Imbalancee
nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intkae, as
evidence by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6
months. " which short-term goal is best for this client? -CORRECT ANSWEREat 50% of six
small meals each day by the end of the week
Short-term goals should be realistic and attainable and should have a timeline of 7 to 10 days
before discharge. (A) meets those criteria. (B) is nurse-oriented. (C) may be beyond the
capabilities of a confused client. (D) is a long-term goal.
the nursie is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care establishes an objective
for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30pm. Which client
response should the nurse document that indicates a successful outcome? -CORRECT
ANSWERDrinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.
The nurse should evaluate the client's outcome by observing the client's performance of each
expected behavior, so drinking 240 mL of fluid five or six times during the shift (D) indicates a
fluid intake of 1200 to 1440 mL, which meets the objective of at least 1000 mL during the
designated period. (A) uses the term "adequate," which is not quantified. (B) is not the
objective, which establishes an intake of at least 1000 mL. (C) is not an evaluation of the specific
fluid intake.
, a client who has active tuberculosis ( TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most
important for the nurse to implement? -CORRECT ANSWERAssign the client to a negative
air-flow room
Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, so the client should be
assigned to a negative pressure air-flow room (D). Although (A and C) should be implemented
for clients in isolation with contact precautions, it is most important that air flow from the room
is minimized when the client has TB. (B) should be implemented when the client leaves the
isolation environment.
A client is receiving atonal (tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infraction. The nurse
determines the clinents apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse
implement next? -CORRECT ANSWERAdminister the medication
Atenolol, a beta-blocker, blocks the beta receptors of the sinoatrial node to reduce the heart
rate, so the medication should be administered (C) because the client's apical pulse is greater
than 60. (A, B, and D) are not indicated at this time.
A 6 year old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periobital
ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and
continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What
assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture? -CORRECT
ANSWERRhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with halo sign
Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear over the
mastoid process) are both signs of a basilar skull fracture, so the nurse should assess for
possible meningeal tears that manifest as a Halo sign with CSF leakage from the ears or nose
(D). (A) is consistent with orbital fractures. (B) occurs with wrenching traumas of the shoulder or
arm fractures. (C) occurs with blunt abdominal injuries.
The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate and difficulty
sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS||ALREADY GRADED A+(NEW BRAND)
A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which
prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is at least likely to exacerbate
asthma? -CORRECT ANSWERMetoprolol Tartrate( Lopressor)
The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor) (C), a beta2
blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction.
Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase asthmatic
symptoms. Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective antihypertensive
agent used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk for bronchoconstriction due to its
nonselective beta blocker action. Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs,
causing bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other obstructive
pulmonary disorders.
A male client who has been taking propranolol ( inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse the
healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal
for the past three months. Which instruction should the use provide? -CORRECT
ANSWERAsk the health care provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week.
Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to prevent rebound
cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over one to two weeks (C), should be
recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias.
Abrupt cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent may precipitate tachycardia and rebound
hypertension, so gradual weaning should be recommended.
A client who is taking clonidine ( Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional
assessment should the nurse make? -CORRECT ANSWERHow long has the client been
taking the medication
,Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with continued use
becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been on the medication (A) provides
information to direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not relevant.
The nurse is preparing to admister atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who is scheduled for
a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain th reason for the prescribed medication.
What response is best for the nurse to provide? -CORRECT ANSWERDecrease the risk of
bradycardia during surgery
Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the automaticity of the sinoatrial node
and prevent a dangerous reduction in heart rate (B) during surgical anesthesia. (A, C and D) do
not address the therapeutic action of atropine use perioperatively.
An 80 year old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant
medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urniary retention
in this geriatric client. ? -CORRECT ANSWERTricyclic antidepressants
Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C), can exacerbate
urinary retention associated with opioids in the older client. Although tricyclic antidepressants
and antihistamines with opioids can exacerbate urinary retention, the concurrent use of (A and
B) with opioids do not. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents (D) can increase the risk for
bleeding, but do not increase urinary retention with opioids (D).
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to administering a
scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter Which action should the nurse
implement? -CORRECT ANSWERAdmister the dose as prescribed
Verapamil slows sinoatrial (SA) nodal automaticity, delays atrioventricular (AV) nodal
conduction, which slows the ventricular rate, and is used to treat atrial flutter, so (A) should be
implemented, based on the client's heart rate and blood pressure. (B and C) are not indicated.
(D) delays the administration of the scheduled dose.
,following an emergency Cesarean delivery the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfed
her newborn . the client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which info should the nurse
provide? -CORRECT ANSWERStimulate contraction of the uterus
When the infant suckles at the breast, oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary to
stimulates the "letdown" reflex, which causes the release of colostrum, and contracts the uterus
(C) to prevent uterine hemorrhage. (A and B) do not support the client's need in the immediate
period after the emergency delivery. Although maternal-newborn bonding (D) is facilitated by
early breastfeeding, the priority is uterine contraction stimulation.
The nurse identifies a clients needs and formulates th nursing problem of " Imbalancee
nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intkae, as
evidence by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6
months. " which short-term goal is best for this client? -CORRECT ANSWEREat 50% of six
small meals each day by the end of the week
Short-term goals should be realistic and attainable and should have a timeline of 7 to 10 days
before discharge. (A) meets those criteria. (B) is nurse-oriented. (C) may be beyond the
capabilities of a confused client. (D) is a long-term goal.
the nursie is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care establishes an objective
for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30pm. Which client
response should the nurse document that indicates a successful outcome? -CORRECT
ANSWERDrinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.
The nurse should evaluate the client's outcome by observing the client's performance of each
expected behavior, so drinking 240 mL of fluid five or six times during the shift (D) indicates a
fluid intake of 1200 to 1440 mL, which meets the objective of at least 1000 mL during the
designated period. (A) uses the term "adequate," which is not quantified. (B) is not the
objective, which establishes an intake of at least 1000 mL. (C) is not an evaluation of the specific
fluid intake.
, a client who has active tuberculosis ( TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most
important for the nurse to implement? -CORRECT ANSWERAssign the client to a negative
air-flow room
Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, so the client should be
assigned to a negative pressure air-flow room (D). Although (A and C) should be implemented
for clients in isolation with contact precautions, it is most important that air flow from the room
is minimized when the client has TB. (B) should be implemented when the client leaves the
isolation environment.
A client is receiving atonal (tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infraction. The nurse
determines the clinents apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse
implement next? -CORRECT ANSWERAdminister the medication
Atenolol, a beta-blocker, blocks the beta receptors of the sinoatrial node to reduce the heart
rate, so the medication should be administered (C) because the client's apical pulse is greater
than 60. (A, B, and D) are not indicated at this time.
A 6 year old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periobital
ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and
continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What
assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture? -CORRECT
ANSWERRhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with halo sign
Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear over the
mastoid process) are both signs of a basilar skull fracture, so the nurse should assess for
possible meningeal tears that manifest as a Halo sign with CSF leakage from the ears or nose
(D). (A) is consistent with orbital fractures. (B) occurs with wrenching traumas of the shoulder or
arm fractures. (C) occurs with blunt abdominal injuries.
The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate and difficulty
sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid
