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WGU D115 - OA READINESS 2025
BRAND NEW ACTUAL EXAM WITH
ANSWERS.
A 28-year old Caucasian male presents to an urgent care clinic
for evaluation of a rash that has appeared on back of his hands
but have now spread to his face and neck. Upon exam the APRN
observes target-like lesions with alternating rings of edema.
These findings are most consistent with the following disorder
A) Onychomycosis
B) Lupus erythematosis
C) Psoriasis
D) Erythema multiforme - correct answer -D) Erythema multiforme
Erythema multiforme - correct answer -Erythema multiforme is a
condition associated with Herpes Simplex Virus and produces
lesions that appear target-like with alternating rings of edema.
Cutaneous lesions most commonly appear in a symmetrical
distribution on the extensor surfaces of the extremities and
subsequently spread to the face, neck, palms, soles. flexural
extremities and trunk may also be involved.
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An 8-month old is brought into the clinic with a history of a fever
for 5 days followed by an erythematous, macular rash on his
trunk, neck and arms. Which action is most appropriate by the
APRN?
A) Send the child to the ER to be treated for an allergic reaction
B) Advise the mother to give the child Benadryl and apply
hydrocortisone cream to the rash
C) Explain to the mother that the rash will go away on it's own and
treatment is not required
D) Tell the mother that the child should not receive the flu vaccine
- correct answer -C) Explain to the mother that the rash will go
away on it's own and treatment is not required
Roseola is a self-limited viral infection that affects primarily infants
and young children. Clinical manifestations include a fever that
lasts 3-5 days followed by an erythematous, nonpruritic macular
rash that lasts approximately 24-48 hours and develops over the
truck, neck and arms. No treatment is usually required.
A child is seen at the local clinic with an erythematous
maculopapular rash, high fever, enlarged lymph nodes, and a
barking cough. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe
documented on the chart?
A) rubella
B) rubeola
C) chickenpox
D) RSV - correct answer -B) rubeola
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Prodromal symptoms of rubeola include high fever (up to 40.5° C
[104.9° F]), malaise, enlarged lymph nodes, runny nose,
conjunctivitis, and "barking" cough.
Which statement is incorrect about Hand, Foot and Mouth
Disease?
A) Can lead to meningitits, encephalitis and acute flaccid
paralysis
B) Caused by coxsackievirus
C) lesions may also appear on the buttocks
D) primarily affects school age children but not infants - correct
answer -D) primarily affects school age children but not infants
Hand, foot and mouth disease affects infants and young children.
It is caused by the coxsackievirus. Clinical manifestations include
fever, vesicular ulcerous lesions in the mouth, hands, feet, and
buttocks. Treatment is supportive care. Rarely the condition can
cause meningitis, encephalitis, acute flaccid paralysis, and
neurorespiratory syndrome.
A 5-year-old Caucasian female is brought into a clinic complaining
of scalp itching. Upon examination the APRN observes nits in the
patient's hair shafts. Which condition is characteristic of these
findings?
A) Pediculosis
B) Fleas
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C) Bedbugs
D) None of the above - correct answer -A) Pediculosis
Pediculosis capitus (head lice) are highly contagious parasites
that survive by sucking blood. Head and body lice are acquired
through personal contact and shared clothing, combs or brushes.
Clinical manifestations include itch of the scalp and ova or nits on
the hair shafts.
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth - correct answer -A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling
are those over the age of 35
The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time
pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP
would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio - correct answer -C) Perform genetic studies
WGU D115 - OA READINESS 2025
BRAND NEW ACTUAL EXAM WITH
ANSWERS.
A 28-year old Caucasian male presents to an urgent care clinic
for evaluation of a rash that has appeared on back of his hands
but have now spread to his face and neck. Upon exam the APRN
observes target-like lesions with alternating rings of edema.
These findings are most consistent with the following disorder
A) Onychomycosis
B) Lupus erythematosis
C) Psoriasis
D) Erythema multiforme - correct answer -D) Erythema multiforme
Erythema multiforme - correct answer -Erythema multiforme is a
condition associated with Herpes Simplex Virus and produces
lesions that appear target-like with alternating rings of edema.
Cutaneous lesions most commonly appear in a symmetrical
distribution on the extensor surfaces of the extremities and
subsequently spread to the face, neck, palms, soles. flexural
extremities and trunk may also be involved.
, Page | 2
An 8-month old is brought into the clinic with a history of a fever
for 5 days followed by an erythematous, macular rash on his
trunk, neck and arms. Which action is most appropriate by the
APRN?
A) Send the child to the ER to be treated for an allergic reaction
B) Advise the mother to give the child Benadryl and apply
hydrocortisone cream to the rash
C) Explain to the mother that the rash will go away on it's own and
treatment is not required
D) Tell the mother that the child should not receive the flu vaccine
- correct answer -C) Explain to the mother that the rash will go
away on it's own and treatment is not required
Roseola is a self-limited viral infection that affects primarily infants
and young children. Clinical manifestations include a fever that
lasts 3-5 days followed by an erythematous, nonpruritic macular
rash that lasts approximately 24-48 hours and develops over the
truck, neck and arms. No treatment is usually required.
A child is seen at the local clinic with an erythematous
maculopapular rash, high fever, enlarged lymph nodes, and a
barking cough. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe
documented on the chart?
A) rubella
B) rubeola
C) chickenpox
D) RSV - correct answer -B) rubeola
, Page | 3
Prodromal symptoms of rubeola include high fever (up to 40.5° C
[104.9° F]), malaise, enlarged lymph nodes, runny nose,
conjunctivitis, and "barking" cough.
Which statement is incorrect about Hand, Foot and Mouth
Disease?
A) Can lead to meningitits, encephalitis and acute flaccid
paralysis
B) Caused by coxsackievirus
C) lesions may also appear on the buttocks
D) primarily affects school age children but not infants - correct
answer -D) primarily affects school age children but not infants
Hand, foot and mouth disease affects infants and young children.
It is caused by the coxsackievirus. Clinical manifestations include
fever, vesicular ulcerous lesions in the mouth, hands, feet, and
buttocks. Treatment is supportive care. Rarely the condition can
cause meningitis, encephalitis, acute flaccid paralysis, and
neurorespiratory syndrome.
A 5-year-old Caucasian female is brought into a clinic complaining
of scalp itching. Upon examination the APRN observes nits in the
patient's hair shafts. Which condition is characteristic of these
findings?
A) Pediculosis
B) Fleas
, Page | 4
C) Bedbugs
D) None of the above - correct answer -A) Pediculosis
Pediculosis capitus (head lice) are highly contagious parasites
that survive by sucking blood. Head and body lice are acquired
through personal contact and shared clothing, combs or brushes.
Clinical manifestations include itch of the scalp and ova or nits on
the hair shafts.
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth - correct answer -A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling
are those over the age of 35
The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time
pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP
would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio - correct answer -C) Perform genetic studies
