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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024–2025 100 Questions (MCQ, SATA, Case Studies) + Cheat Sheets

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1. A patient on Lisinopril develops a dry cough. The nurse explains this is due to: • A) Bradykinin accumulation (Correct) • B) Hyperkalemia • C) Allergic reaction • Rationale: ACE inhibitors cause cough via bradykinin buildup (A). Allergy (C) would include rash/angioedema. 2. Which patient should avoid metoprolol? • A) A 45-year-old with asthma (Correct) • B) A 60-year-old with hypertension • C) A 55-year-old with atrial fibrillation • Rationale: Beta-blockers (e.g., metoprolol) can trigger bronchospasm in asthma (A). 3. A patient receiving IV nitroglycerin has a BP of 78/52 mmHg. The nurse’s priority is to: • A) Slow the infusion and raise legs (Correct) • B) Administer IV fluids • C) Check for headache • Rationale: NTG causes severe hypotension. Trendelenburg position improves venous return (A). 4. Digoxin toxicity is most likely if the patient has: • A) Hypokalemia + nausea (Correct) • B) Hypernatremia + thirst • C) Hypocalcemia + tingling • Rationale: Low potassium (A) increases digoxin toxicity risk (cardiac arrhythmias). 5. A patient on amlodipine reports swollen ankles. The nurse should: • A) Monitor and teach leg elevation (Correct) • B) Hold the dose • C) Administer furosemide • Rationale: CCBs like amlodipine cause peripheral edema (A). Diuretics (C) aren’t first-line. 6. Hydralazine is contraindicated in: • A) Coronary artery disease (CAD) (Correct) • B) Diabetes • C) Osteoporosis • Rationale: Hydralazine can cause reflex tachycardia, worsening CAD (A). 7. A patient on furosemide should be taught to eat: • A) Bananas and oranges (Correct) • B) Cheese and yogurt • C) White bread and pasta • Rationale: Loop diuretics cause hypokalemia; potassium-rich foods (A) are key. 8. Spironolactone should be avoided with: • A) Potassium supplements (Correct) • B) Iron tablets • C) Vitamin D • Rationale: Spironolactone is a K+-sparing diuretic; combo with K+ (A) risks hyperkalemia. 9. Diltiazem is prescribed for a patient with AFib. The nurse monitors for: • A) Bradycardia (Correct) • B) Hyperglycemia • C) Diarrhea • Rationale: Non-DHP CCBs (e.g., diltiazem) can cause bradycardia/AV block (A). 10. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 5.8. The nurse prepares: • A) Vitamin K (Correct) • B) Protamine sulfate • C) Calcium gluconate • Rationale: INR 5 = bleeding risk; vitamin K (A) reverses warfarin.

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ATI FUNDAMENTALS PROCTORED
EXAM 2024- 2025


(2024-2025 Edition)



 100% Verified Exam-Style Questions
 70 Multiple Choice Questions
 15 Select-All-That-Apply (SATA) Questions
 15 Case Study–Style Questions
 Printable Clinical Skills Checklist
 Questions with answers and detailed rationales

, ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024- 2025


Table of Contents

1. Section 1: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

2. Section 2: Case Study–Style Questions

3. Section 3: Select-All-That-Apply (SATA)

4. Section 4: Cheat Sheet

5. Section 5:Clinical Skills Checklist




2

, ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024- 2025


Section 1: Multiple Choice Questions (70 Questions)
1. A nurse prepares to assist a client with ambulation after surgery. What is the priority
action?
A. Apply antiembolism stockings
B. Check the client’s pain level
C. Assess the client’s risk for falls
D. Provide instructions for using a walker
Correct Answer: C. Assess the client’s risk for falls
Rationale: Safety is a priority. Assessing fall risk helps determine necessary support and prevent
injury.

2. A nurse finds a client on the floor after hearing a loud thump. What is the next action after
checking for injury?
A. Fill out an incident report
B. Call the provider
C. Document the fall in the nurse’s notes
D. Notify the client’s family
Correct Answer: A. Fill out an incident report
Rationale: The nurse must document the event in a facility-specific incident report before other
steps are taken.

3. A client is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. What intervention ensures safety?
A. Use petroleum jelly on dry nares
B. Monitor the client every 8 hours
C. Post a “No Smoking” sign at the bedside
D. Use up to 10 L/min of flow
Correct Answer: C. Post a “No Smoking” sign at the bedside
Rationale: Oxygen is flammable. Clear signage prevents accidental ignition.

4. A nurse prepares to administer a medication through a nasogastric tube. What is the first
step?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water
B. Verify tube placement
C. Crush all medications together
D. Check for bowel sounds
Correct Answer: B. Verify tube placement
Rationale: Verifying placement ensures medication enters the stomach and prevents
aspiration.

5. Which task is appropriate to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Evaluating a client’s response to pain medication
B. Collecting a routine urine sample

3

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