HEALTH ASSESSMENT FINAL TEST BANK EXAM
2024-2025 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100 % PASS
SOLUTION A+ GRADE
The nurse is examining the glans and knows which finding is normal for this area?
a. The meatus may have a slight discharge when the glans is compressed.
b. Hair is without pest inhabitants.
c. The skin is wrinkled and without lesions.
d. Smegma may be present under the foreskin of an uncircumcised male. - answer>>d. Smegma
may be present under the foreskin of an uncircumcised male.
Rationale: The glans looks smooth and without lesions and does not have hair. The meatus
should not have any discharge when the glans is compressed. Some cheesy smegma may have
collected under the foreskin of an uncircumcised male.
When performing a genitourinary assessment, the nurse notices that the urethral meatus is
ventrally positioned. This finding is:
a. Called hypospadias.
b. A result of phimosis.
c. Probably due to a stricture.
d. Often associated with aging. - answer>>a. Called hypospadias.
Rationale: Normally, the urethral meatus is positioned just about centrally. Hypospadias is the
ventral location of the urethral meatus. The position of the meatus does not change with
aging. Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin. A stricture is a narrow opening of the
meatus.
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, which action is correct?
,a. Auscultating for the presence of a bruit over the scrotum
b. Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal
ligament
,c. Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present in the inguinal region during inspection
d. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamined) leg when palpating for a hernia
on the right side - answer>>d. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamined) leg
when palpating for a hernia on the right side
Rationale: When palpating for the presence of a hernia on the right side, the male patient is
asked to shift his weight onto the left (unexamined) leg. Auscultating for a bruit over the
scrotum is not appropriate. When palpating for lymph nodes, the horizontal chain is palpated.
The inguinal canal should be palpated whether a bulge is present or not.
The nurse is aware of which statement to be true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer?
a. Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years.
b. The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration.
c. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of
testicular cancer.
d. The cure rate for testicular cancer is low. - answer>>c. Men with a history of cryptorchidism
are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.
Rationale: Men with undescended testicles (cryptorchidism) are at the greatest risk for the
development of testicular cancer. The overall incidence of testicular cancer is rare. Although
testicular cancer has no early symptoms, when detected early and treated before
metastasizing, the cure rate is almost 100%.
A 2-year-old boy has been diagnosed with physiologic cryptorchidism. Considering this
diagnosis, during assessment the nurse will most likely observe:
a. Testes that are hard and painful to palpation.
b. Atrophic scrotum and a bilateral absence of the testis.
c. Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down.
d. Testes that migrate into the abdomen when the child squats or sits cross-legged. - answer>>c.
Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down.
, Rationale: Migratory testes (physiologic cryptorchidism) are common because of the strength
of the cremasteric reflex and the small mass of the prepubertal testes. The affected side has a
normally developed scrotum and the testis can be milked down. The other responses are not
correct.
A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of dull pain and pulling in the scrotal area.
On examination, the nurse palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis on
the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine and refills when he is upright. This
description is consistent with:
a. Epididymitis.
b. Spermatocele.
c. Testicular torsion.
d. Varicocele. - answer>>d. Varicocele.
Rationale:A varicocele consists of dilated, tortuous varicose veins in the spermatic cord caused
by incompetent valves within the vein. Symptoms include dull pain or a constant pulling or
dragging feeling, or the individual may be asymptomatic. When palpating the mass, the
examiner will feel a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis that collapses when
the individual is supine and refills when the individual is upright. (See Table 24-6 for more
information and for the descriptions of the other options.)
The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On
examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the
internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are
most consistent with a(n) hernia.
a. Scrotal
b. Femoral
c. Direct inguinal
d. Indirect inguinal - answer>>c. Direct inguinal
Rationale: Direct inguinal hernias occur most often in men over the age of 40 years. It is an
acquired weakness brought on by heavy lifting, obesity, chronic cough, or ascites. The direct
2024-2025 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100 % PASS
SOLUTION A+ GRADE
The nurse is examining the glans and knows which finding is normal for this area?
a. The meatus may have a slight discharge when the glans is compressed.
b. Hair is without pest inhabitants.
c. The skin is wrinkled and without lesions.
d. Smegma may be present under the foreskin of an uncircumcised male. - answer>>d. Smegma
may be present under the foreskin of an uncircumcised male.
Rationale: The glans looks smooth and without lesions and does not have hair. The meatus
should not have any discharge when the glans is compressed. Some cheesy smegma may have
collected under the foreskin of an uncircumcised male.
When performing a genitourinary assessment, the nurse notices that the urethral meatus is
ventrally positioned. This finding is:
a. Called hypospadias.
b. A result of phimosis.
c. Probably due to a stricture.
d. Often associated with aging. - answer>>a. Called hypospadias.
Rationale: Normally, the urethral meatus is positioned just about centrally. Hypospadias is the
ventral location of the urethral meatus. The position of the meatus does not change with
aging. Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin. A stricture is a narrow opening of the
meatus.
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, which action is correct?
,a. Auscultating for the presence of a bruit over the scrotum
b. Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal
ligament
,c. Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present in the inguinal region during inspection
d. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamined) leg when palpating for a hernia
on the right side - answer>>d. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamined) leg
when palpating for a hernia on the right side
Rationale: When palpating for the presence of a hernia on the right side, the male patient is
asked to shift his weight onto the left (unexamined) leg. Auscultating for a bruit over the
scrotum is not appropriate. When palpating for lymph nodes, the horizontal chain is palpated.
The inguinal canal should be palpated whether a bulge is present or not.
The nurse is aware of which statement to be true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer?
a. Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years.
b. The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration.
c. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of
testicular cancer.
d. The cure rate for testicular cancer is low. - answer>>c. Men with a history of cryptorchidism
are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.
Rationale: Men with undescended testicles (cryptorchidism) are at the greatest risk for the
development of testicular cancer. The overall incidence of testicular cancer is rare. Although
testicular cancer has no early symptoms, when detected early and treated before
metastasizing, the cure rate is almost 100%.
A 2-year-old boy has been diagnosed with physiologic cryptorchidism. Considering this
diagnosis, during assessment the nurse will most likely observe:
a. Testes that are hard and painful to palpation.
b. Atrophic scrotum and a bilateral absence of the testis.
c. Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down.
d. Testes that migrate into the abdomen when the child squats or sits cross-legged. - answer>>c.
Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down.
, Rationale: Migratory testes (physiologic cryptorchidism) are common because of the strength
of the cremasteric reflex and the small mass of the prepubertal testes. The affected side has a
normally developed scrotum and the testis can be milked down. The other responses are not
correct.
A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of dull pain and pulling in the scrotal area.
On examination, the nurse palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis on
the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine and refills when he is upright. This
description is consistent with:
a. Epididymitis.
b. Spermatocele.
c. Testicular torsion.
d. Varicocele. - answer>>d. Varicocele.
Rationale:A varicocele consists of dilated, tortuous varicose veins in the spermatic cord caused
by incompetent valves within the vein. Symptoms include dull pain or a constant pulling or
dragging feeling, or the individual may be asymptomatic. When palpating the mass, the
examiner will feel a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis that collapses when
the individual is supine and refills when the individual is upright. (See Table 24-6 for more
information and for the descriptions of the other options.)
The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On
examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the
internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are
most consistent with a(n) hernia.
a. Scrotal
b. Femoral
c. Direct inguinal
d. Indirect inguinal - answer>>c. Direct inguinal
Rationale: Direct inguinal hernias occur most often in men over the age of 40 years. It is an
acquired weakness brought on by heavy lifting, obesity, chronic cough, or ascites. The direct
