1. A client with asthma uses albuterol PRN. Which
statement
shows proper understanding?
A. “I use this every morning and night.”
B. “I use this when I’m having shortness of breath.”
C. “I use it with my steroid inhaler at the same time.”
D. “I use this even if I’m not having symptoms.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used during asthma
attacks
or acute symptoms.
2. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed
cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had
A. true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
3. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients
should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which
lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause
hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
5. A client prescribed clopidogrel should avoid which overthe
, counter medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Famotidine
D. Guaifenesin
Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk
when
combined with antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel.
6. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness
and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation,
confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
7. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
8. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction
is
appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding
and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
9. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
statement
shows proper understanding?
A. “I use this every morning and night.”
B. “I use this when I’m having shortness of breath.”
C. “I use it with my steroid inhaler at the same time.”
D. “I use this even if I’m not having symptoms.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used during asthma
attacks
or acute symptoms.
2. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed
cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had
A. true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
3. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients
should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which
lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause
hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
5. A client prescribed clopidogrel should avoid which overthe
, counter medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Famotidine
D. Guaifenesin
Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk
when
combined with antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel.
6. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness
and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation,
confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
7. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
8. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction
is
appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding
and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
9. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
