1. A nurse is caring for a client on glipizide. Which
statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.
2. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis develops
numbness and tingling in their hands and feet. What should
the
nurse anticipate?
A. The need for increased calcium
B. Administration of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Discontinuation of therapy
D. Addition of prednisone
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, often
prevented or treated with vitamin B6.
3. A client is prescribed loratadine for seasonal allergies.
What is
A. key difference from diphenhydramine?
A. Loratadine causes more drowsiness
B. Loratadine causes GI upset
C. Loratadine is non-sedating
D. Loratadine is only available IV
Answer: C
Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine
are
non-sedating.
4. A client is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation.
Which
side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold. Clients at
risk (e.g.,
with eating disorders) need close monitoring.
5. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128
, mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk.
Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
6. A nurse is teaching a client about hydroxychloroquine
for
lupus. What adverse effect should be reported immediately?
A. Dizziness
B. Blurred vision
C. Dry mouth
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Retinal damage is a serious side effect. Clients
need
regular eye exams.
7. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably
in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
8. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports
mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral
care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
9. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.
2. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis develops
numbness and tingling in their hands and feet. What should
the
nurse anticipate?
A. The need for increased calcium
B. Administration of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Discontinuation of therapy
D. Addition of prednisone
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, often
prevented or treated with vitamin B6.
3. A client is prescribed loratadine for seasonal allergies.
What is
A. key difference from diphenhydramine?
A. Loratadine causes more drowsiness
B. Loratadine causes GI upset
C. Loratadine is non-sedating
D. Loratadine is only available IV
Answer: C
Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine
are
non-sedating.
4. A client is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation.
Which
side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold. Clients at
risk (e.g.,
with eating disorders) need close monitoring.
5. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128
, mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk.
Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
6. A nurse is teaching a client about hydroxychloroquine
for
lupus. What adverse effect should be reported immediately?
A. Dizziness
B. Blurred vision
C. Dry mouth
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Retinal damage is a serious side effect. Clients
need
regular eye exams.
7. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably
in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
8. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports
mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral
care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
9. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
