1. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed.
Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
2. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
3. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action
should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk.
The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
4. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums.
What
should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect.
Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
5. A client with myasthenia gravis is prescribed
neostigmine.
, Which finding indicates underdosing?
A. Bradycardia
B. Muscle weakness
C. Diarrhea
D. Excessive salivation
Answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness could indicate myasthenic
crisis,
requiring dosage adjustment.
6. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128
mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk.
Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
7. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which
lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause
hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
8. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
9. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At
what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
2. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
3. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action
should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk.
The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
4. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums.
What
should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect.
Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
5. A client with myasthenia gravis is prescribed
neostigmine.
, Which finding indicates underdosing?
A. Bradycardia
B. Muscle weakness
C. Diarrhea
D. Excessive salivation
Answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness could indicate myasthenic
crisis,
requiring dosage adjustment.
6. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128
mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk.
Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
7. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which
lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause
hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
8. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
9. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At
what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
