1. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed.
Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
2. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
3. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
4. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an
expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to
prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
5. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial
twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
, A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity.
Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
6. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action
should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk.
The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
7. A client with myasthenia gravis is prescribed
neostigmine.
Which finding indicates underdosing?
A. Bradycardia
B. Muscle weakness
C. Diarrhea
D. Excessive salivation
Answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness could indicate myasthenic
crisis,
requiring dosage adjustment.
8. A client is prescribed loratadine for seasonal allergies.
What is
A. key difference from diphenhydramine?
A. Loratadine causes more drowsiness
B. Loratadine causes GI upset
C. Loratadine is non-sedating
D. Loratadine is only available IV
Answer: C
Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine
are
non-sedating.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about hydroxychloroquine
for
lupus. What adverse effect should be reported immediately?
A. Dizziness
B. Blurred vision
Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
2. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
3. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
4. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an
expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to
prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
5. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial
twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
, A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity.
Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
6. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action
should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk.
The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
7. A client with myasthenia gravis is prescribed
neostigmine.
Which finding indicates underdosing?
A. Bradycardia
B. Muscle weakness
C. Diarrhea
D. Excessive salivation
Answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness could indicate myasthenic
crisis,
requiring dosage adjustment.
8. A client is prescribed loratadine for seasonal allergies.
What is
A. key difference from diphenhydramine?
A. Loratadine causes more drowsiness
B. Loratadine causes GI upset
C. Loratadine is non-sedating
D. Loratadine is only available IV
Answer: C
Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine
are
non-sedating.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about hydroxychloroquine
for
lupus. What adverse effect should be reported immediately?
A. Dizziness
B. Blurred vision
