1. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
2. A client with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine. Which
statement indicates effective therapy?
A. “I feel cold all the time.”
B. “My heart rate is slower than usual.”
C. “I have more energy now.”
D. “I’m gaining weight quickly.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Increased energy suggests improved thyroid
function.
3. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
4. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed.
Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
5. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action
should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
, C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk.
The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
6. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial
twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity.
Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
7. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients
should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
8. A client is prescribed exenatide. What is a common side
effect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Exenatide can cause nausea, especially when
initiating
therapy. It’s an injectable incretin mimetic.
9. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
2. A client with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine. Which
statement indicates effective therapy?
A. “I feel cold all the time.”
B. “My heart rate is slower than usual.”
C. “I have more energy now.”
D. “I’m gaining weight quickly.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Increased energy suggests improved thyroid
function.
3. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
4. A client taking omeprazole asks why it is prescribed.
Which
response is correct?
A. "It coats the lining of the stomach."
B. "It neutralizes gastric acid."
C. "It blocks acid production."
D. "It stimulates protective mucus production."
Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that
blocks gastric acid secretion.
5. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action
should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
, C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk.
The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
6. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial
twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity.
Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
7. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients
should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
8. A client is prescribed exenatide. What is a common side
effect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Exenatide can cause nausea, especially when
initiating
therapy. It’s an injectable incretin mimetic.
9. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no
pronounced
