1. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports
mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral
care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
2. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness
and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation,
confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
3. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
4. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an
expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to
prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
5. A client with chronic constipation uses magnesium
, citrate
daily. What risk should the nurse discuss?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Dehydration
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic laxative use, especially osmotic types
like
magnesium citrate, causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
6. A client is prescribed loratadine for seasonal allergies.
What is
A. key difference from diphenhydramine?
A. Loratadine causes more drowsiness
B. Loratadine causes GI upset
C. Loratadine is non-sedating
D. Loratadine is only available IV
Answer: C
Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine
are
non-sedating.
7. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
8. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction
is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up
to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
9. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral
care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
2. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness
and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation,
confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
3. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
4. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an
expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to
prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
5. A client with chronic constipation uses magnesium
, citrate
daily. What risk should the nurse discuss?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Dehydration
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic laxative use, especially osmotic types
like
magnesium citrate, causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
6. A client is prescribed loratadine for seasonal allergies.
What is
A. key difference from diphenhydramine?
A. Loratadine causes more drowsiness
B. Loratadine causes GI upset
C. Loratadine is non-sedating
D. Loratadine is only available IV
Answer: C
Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine
are
non-sedating.
7. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
8. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction
is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up
to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
9. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
