NSG 6440 Predictor Test Latest Questions And Answers All Are Correct
2025 Updated Study Solutions
Question 1
Which of the following is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is common in adolescents aged
15-24?
A) Urinary Tract Infection
B) Mononucleosis
C) Nodulocystic Acne
D) Appendicitis
Correct Answer: B) Mononucleosis
Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection, primarily caused by the Epstein-
Barr virus (EBV), with the highest incidence occurring in the 15- to 24-year-old age group.
Question 2
A patient with mononucleosis typically presents with fatigue, malaise, anorexia, and what other
key physical finding?
A) Petechiae
B) Auspitz sign
C) Lymphadenopathy
D) Crepitus
Correct Answer: C) Lymphadenopathy
Rationale: Lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes), particularly in the posterior cervical
chain, is a classic and prominent sign of infectious mononucleosis.
Question 3
In a patient with mononucleosis, what findings would be expected on a complete blood count
(CBC)?
A) Neutrophilia and lymphocytopenia
B) Neutropenia and lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes
C) Thrombocytopenia and eosinophilia
D) Anemia and leukopenia
Correct Answer: B) Neutropenia and lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes
Rationale: The characteristic CBC pattern for mononucleosis includes an elevated white
,blood cell count with a significant increase in lymphocytes (lymphocytosis), many of which
will appear atypical on the peripheral smear.
Question 4
A 19-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and fatigue. To screen for infectious
mononucleosis, which rapid diagnostic test would the provider order?
A) CBC with differential
B) Monospot test
C) Throat culture
D) Liver function tests
Correct Answer: B) Monospot test
Rationale: The Monospot test is a rapid slide test that detects the presence of heterophile
antibodies, which are typically produced in response to an Epstein-Barr virus infection.
Question 5
What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI) in a
non-pregnant adult female in a region with low E. coli resistance?
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Amoxicillin
C) Doxycycline
D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
Correct Answer: D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
Rationale: For uncomplicated cystitis, a short course of TMP-SMX (Bactrim) is a standard
first-line therapy, provided local resistance rates are low (typically <10-20%).
Question 6
Which medication, a systemic retinoid, is indicated for severe, recalcitrant nodulocystic acne but
is a known teratogen?
A) Doxycycline
B) Tretinoin (topical)
C) Isotretinoin
D) Spironolactone
Correct Answer: C) Isotretinoin
,Rationale: Isotretinoin is a highly effective oral medication for severe acne, but it is a
powerful teratogen (Pregnancy Category X) and requires strict monitoring and adherence
to the iPLEDGE program for female patients.
Question 7
A patient taking a combined hormonal contraceptive is prescribed topiramate for migraines.
What is the most important counseling point for the nurse practitioner to provide?
A) The patient should stop the topiramate immediately.
B) The patient must use a backup contraceptive method.
C) The patient should take the contraceptive in the morning and topiramate at night.
D) The patient should switch to a lower dose contraceptive.
Correct Answer: B) The patient must use a backup contraceptive method.
Rationale: Topiramate is an anticonvulsant that can induce hepatic enzymes, which
increases the metabolism of the hormones in oral contraceptives, thereby reducing their
effectiveness and increasing the risk of unintended pregnancy.
Question 8
A urinalysis report showing the presence of bacteria and positive nitrites is highly indicative of:
A) A urinary tract infection (UTI)
B) Kidney stones
C) Dehydration
D) Glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: A) A urinary tract infection (UTI)
Rationale: Many common UTI pathogens, like E. coli, are nitrate-reducing bacteria. They
convert urinary nitrates to nitrites, making a positive nitrite test a specific indicator of a
bacterial UTI.
Question 9
Which of the following is NOT an established risk factor for atherosclerotic heart disease?
A) High LDL-C
B) High HDL-C
C) High Triglycerides
D) Dyslipidemia
, Correct Answer: B) High HDL-C
Rationale: High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) is known as "good cholesterol"
because it helps remove LDL cholesterol from the arteries. A high level of HDL-C is
protective against heart disease, while a low level is a risk factor.
Question 10
A patient is diagnosed with psoriasis. When the scales are scraped off, pinpoint bleeding occurs.
This is known as:
A) Koebner phenomenon
B) Auspitz sign
C) Nikolsky's sign
D) Wickham's striae
Correct Answer: B) Auspitz sign
Rationale: The Auspitz sign is the appearance of punctate bleeding spots when the top scales
of a psoriatic plaque are removed. It is a characteristic, though not pathognomonic, sign of
psoriasis.
Question 11
A patient who has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for a year abruptly
stops the medication. They may experience flu-like symptoms, insomnia, and nausea. This is
known as:
A) Serotonin syndrome
B) A relapse of depression
C) Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome
D) A medication allergy
Correct Answer: C) Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome
Rationale: Abruptly stopping certain antidepressants, especially those with a short half-life
like paroxetine, can cause a withdrawal-like syndrome with a constellation of physical and
psychological symptoms.
Question 12
A 65-year-old male with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is being treated for depression.
Which class of medication should be avoided as it can worsen urinary retention?
2025 Updated Study Solutions
Question 1
Which of the following is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is common in adolescents aged
15-24?
A) Urinary Tract Infection
B) Mononucleosis
C) Nodulocystic Acne
D) Appendicitis
Correct Answer: B) Mononucleosis
Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection, primarily caused by the Epstein-
Barr virus (EBV), with the highest incidence occurring in the 15- to 24-year-old age group.
Question 2
A patient with mononucleosis typically presents with fatigue, malaise, anorexia, and what other
key physical finding?
A) Petechiae
B) Auspitz sign
C) Lymphadenopathy
D) Crepitus
Correct Answer: C) Lymphadenopathy
Rationale: Lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes), particularly in the posterior cervical
chain, is a classic and prominent sign of infectious mononucleosis.
Question 3
In a patient with mononucleosis, what findings would be expected on a complete blood count
(CBC)?
A) Neutrophilia and lymphocytopenia
B) Neutropenia and lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes
C) Thrombocytopenia and eosinophilia
D) Anemia and leukopenia
Correct Answer: B) Neutropenia and lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes
Rationale: The characteristic CBC pattern for mononucleosis includes an elevated white
,blood cell count with a significant increase in lymphocytes (lymphocytosis), many of which
will appear atypical on the peripheral smear.
Question 4
A 19-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and fatigue. To screen for infectious
mononucleosis, which rapid diagnostic test would the provider order?
A) CBC with differential
B) Monospot test
C) Throat culture
D) Liver function tests
Correct Answer: B) Monospot test
Rationale: The Monospot test is a rapid slide test that detects the presence of heterophile
antibodies, which are typically produced in response to an Epstein-Barr virus infection.
Question 5
What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI) in a
non-pregnant adult female in a region with low E. coli resistance?
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Amoxicillin
C) Doxycycline
D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
Correct Answer: D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
Rationale: For uncomplicated cystitis, a short course of TMP-SMX (Bactrim) is a standard
first-line therapy, provided local resistance rates are low (typically <10-20%).
Question 6
Which medication, a systemic retinoid, is indicated for severe, recalcitrant nodulocystic acne but
is a known teratogen?
A) Doxycycline
B) Tretinoin (topical)
C) Isotretinoin
D) Spironolactone
Correct Answer: C) Isotretinoin
,Rationale: Isotretinoin is a highly effective oral medication for severe acne, but it is a
powerful teratogen (Pregnancy Category X) and requires strict monitoring and adherence
to the iPLEDGE program for female patients.
Question 7
A patient taking a combined hormonal contraceptive is prescribed topiramate for migraines.
What is the most important counseling point for the nurse practitioner to provide?
A) The patient should stop the topiramate immediately.
B) The patient must use a backup contraceptive method.
C) The patient should take the contraceptive in the morning and topiramate at night.
D) The patient should switch to a lower dose contraceptive.
Correct Answer: B) The patient must use a backup contraceptive method.
Rationale: Topiramate is an anticonvulsant that can induce hepatic enzymes, which
increases the metabolism of the hormones in oral contraceptives, thereby reducing their
effectiveness and increasing the risk of unintended pregnancy.
Question 8
A urinalysis report showing the presence of bacteria and positive nitrites is highly indicative of:
A) A urinary tract infection (UTI)
B) Kidney stones
C) Dehydration
D) Glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: A) A urinary tract infection (UTI)
Rationale: Many common UTI pathogens, like E. coli, are nitrate-reducing bacteria. They
convert urinary nitrates to nitrites, making a positive nitrite test a specific indicator of a
bacterial UTI.
Question 9
Which of the following is NOT an established risk factor for atherosclerotic heart disease?
A) High LDL-C
B) High HDL-C
C) High Triglycerides
D) Dyslipidemia
, Correct Answer: B) High HDL-C
Rationale: High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) is known as "good cholesterol"
because it helps remove LDL cholesterol from the arteries. A high level of HDL-C is
protective against heart disease, while a low level is a risk factor.
Question 10
A patient is diagnosed with psoriasis. When the scales are scraped off, pinpoint bleeding occurs.
This is known as:
A) Koebner phenomenon
B) Auspitz sign
C) Nikolsky's sign
D) Wickham's striae
Correct Answer: B) Auspitz sign
Rationale: The Auspitz sign is the appearance of punctate bleeding spots when the top scales
of a psoriatic plaque are removed. It is a characteristic, though not pathognomonic, sign of
psoriasis.
Question 11
A patient who has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for a year abruptly
stops the medication. They may experience flu-like symptoms, insomnia, and nausea. This is
known as:
A) Serotonin syndrome
B) A relapse of depression
C) Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome
D) A medication allergy
Correct Answer: C) Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome
Rationale: Abruptly stopping certain antidepressants, especially those with a short half-life
like paroxetine, can cause a withdrawal-like syndrome with a constellation of physical and
psychological symptoms.
Question 12
A 65-year-old male with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is being treated for depression.
Which class of medication should be avoided as it can worsen urinary retention?
