Fundamentals of Nursing, 2nd Edition – Active Learning for
Collaborative Practice by Yoost & Crawford
Chapter 35: Medication Administration
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The nurse identifies which medication that has the highest potential for abuse according
to the Controlled Substances Act?
A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)---schedule II
B. Alprazolam (Xanax)---schedule IV
C. Acetaminophen & codeine (Tylenol #3)---schedule III
D. Diphenoxylate & atropine (Lomotil)---schedule V
Answer: A
Explanation: Schedule II drugs like methylphenidate have the highest abuse potential with strict
prescription regulations, while schedules III-V have progressively lower risks.
Why Other Options Are Wrong: B, C, and D are lower-schedule medications with reduced abuse
potential compared to schedule II.
2. The nurse is preparing a patient to self-administer medication injections at home. How
can the nurse best confirm the patient's understanding of proper technique?
A. Provide written instructions
B. Observe the patient self-administer an injection
C. Call the patient the next day to check for difficulties
D. Ask the patient to verbally explain the process
Answer: B
Explanation: Direct observation allows the nurse to correct technique errors immediately and
provide reassurance.
Why Other Options Are Wrong: A and D don't demonstrate practical competency. C delays
feedback.
3. The nurse must provide rapid pain relief to a patient in agonizing pain. Which
medication route will achieve the fastest effect?
A. Morphine (MSContin) 10 mg PO
B. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 1 mg IV push
, C. Meperidine (Demerol) 75 mg IM
D. Fentanyl (Duragesic) 50 mcg transdermal patch
Answer: B
Explanation: IV administration provides immediate systemic absorption and pain relief.
Why Other Options Are Wrong: A has delayed GI absorption. C requires muscle absorption. D
has slow transdermal absorption.
4. After medication administration, the patient develops an itchy rash and feels unwell.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Notify the provider and pharmacist
B. Assess for breathing difficulties
C. Document the reaction
D. Request hydrocortisone cream
Answer: B
Explanation: Airway assessment is critical to identify anaphylaxis, which can progress rapidly to
respiratory compromise.
Why Other Options Are Wrong: A, C, and D are secondary to ensuring airway safety.
5. The nurse identifies which medication order to be administered PRN (as needed)?
A. Zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg PO at night if unable to sleep
B. Prednisone 10 mg PO daily with a taper
C. Humulin R 10 units subcutaneously before meals
D. Cefazolin (Ancef) 1 g IVPB pre-op
Answer: A
Explanation: PRN orders specify administration only when specific criteria (like insomnia) are
met.
Why Other Options Are Wrong: B, C, and D are scheduled medications without PRN
parameters.
6. After antibiotic administration, the patient develops hives, difficulty breathing, and
hypotension. What is the nurse's assessment?
A. Mild allergic reaction requiring antihistamines
B. Anaphylaxis requiring epinephrine
Collaborative Practice by Yoost & Crawford
Chapter 35: Medication Administration
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The nurse identifies which medication that has the highest potential for abuse according
to the Controlled Substances Act?
A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)---schedule II
B. Alprazolam (Xanax)---schedule IV
C. Acetaminophen & codeine (Tylenol #3)---schedule III
D. Diphenoxylate & atropine (Lomotil)---schedule V
Answer: A
Explanation: Schedule II drugs like methylphenidate have the highest abuse potential with strict
prescription regulations, while schedules III-V have progressively lower risks.
Why Other Options Are Wrong: B, C, and D are lower-schedule medications with reduced abuse
potential compared to schedule II.
2. The nurse is preparing a patient to self-administer medication injections at home. How
can the nurse best confirm the patient's understanding of proper technique?
A. Provide written instructions
B. Observe the patient self-administer an injection
C. Call the patient the next day to check for difficulties
D. Ask the patient to verbally explain the process
Answer: B
Explanation: Direct observation allows the nurse to correct technique errors immediately and
provide reassurance.
Why Other Options Are Wrong: A and D don't demonstrate practical competency. C delays
feedback.
3. The nurse must provide rapid pain relief to a patient in agonizing pain. Which
medication route will achieve the fastest effect?
A. Morphine (MSContin) 10 mg PO
B. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 1 mg IV push
, C. Meperidine (Demerol) 75 mg IM
D. Fentanyl (Duragesic) 50 mcg transdermal patch
Answer: B
Explanation: IV administration provides immediate systemic absorption and pain relief.
Why Other Options Are Wrong: A has delayed GI absorption. C requires muscle absorption. D
has slow transdermal absorption.
4. After medication administration, the patient develops an itchy rash and feels unwell.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Notify the provider and pharmacist
B. Assess for breathing difficulties
C. Document the reaction
D. Request hydrocortisone cream
Answer: B
Explanation: Airway assessment is critical to identify anaphylaxis, which can progress rapidly to
respiratory compromise.
Why Other Options Are Wrong: A, C, and D are secondary to ensuring airway safety.
5. The nurse identifies which medication order to be administered PRN (as needed)?
A. Zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg PO at night if unable to sleep
B. Prednisone 10 mg PO daily with a taper
C. Humulin R 10 units subcutaneously before meals
D. Cefazolin (Ancef) 1 g IVPB pre-op
Answer: A
Explanation: PRN orders specify administration only when specific criteria (like insomnia) are
met.
Why Other Options Are Wrong: B, C, and D are scheduled medications without PRN
parameters.
6. After antibiotic administration, the patient develops hives, difficulty breathing, and
hypotension. What is the nurse's assessment?
A. Mild allergic reaction requiring antihistamines
B. Anaphylaxis requiring epinephrine
