CARDIAC NCLEX FINAL EXAM PREP 2025/2026 ACCURATE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS RECENT VERSION

CARDIAC NCLEX FINAL EXAM PREP 2025/2026 ACCURATE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS RECENT VERSION 1. A nurse assisting in caring for a client hospitalized with acute pericarditis is monitoring the client for signs of cardiac tamponade. The nurse determines that which finding is unrelated to possible cardiac tamponade? - ANSWER Pulse rate of 58 beats per minute 2. A client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of heparin in the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The nurse is told that the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 65 seconds and that the client's baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. The nurse identifies these results as: - ANSWER Within the therapeutic range 3. A nurse monitors the laboratory data on a client at risk for coronary artery disease. A fasting blood glucose reading of 200 mg/dL is recorded on the chart. The nurse analyzes this result as: - ANSWER Elevated, signaling the presence of diabetes mellitus, a risk factor of coronary artery disease 4. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin grains 1/150 sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. If the blood pressure is still stable, the nurse should take which action next? - ANSWER Administer another nitroglycerin tablet 5. A nurse is beginning to ambulate a client with activity intolerance caused by bacterial endocarditis. The nurse determines that the client is best tolerating ambulation if which parameter is noted? - ANSWER Blood pressure that increases from 114/82 to 118/86 mm Hg 6. What is it called when there is no contraction that follows the stimulus with a pacemaker? - ANSWER loss of capture 7. What is it called when a pacemaker fires at inappropriate times? - ANSWER failure to sense 8. What can cause loss of capture, failure to sense or any malfunction with a pacemaker? - ANSWER not programmed correctly, electrodes dislodged, battery may be depleted 9. Who is at risk for pulmonary edema? - ANSWER Anyone who is: receiving fluids really fast, very young or old, has heart or kidney history 10.What is the brief patho of pulmonary edema? - ANSWER Fluid is backing up into the lungs when the heart can't move it forward through the body 11.What time of day does pulmonary edema typically occur? - ANSWER night 12.What are s/s of pulmonary edema? - ANSWER sudden onset, breathless, restless, severe hypoxia, productive cough (pink frothy sputum) 13.What is the treatment for pulmonary edema? - ANSWER oxygen, diuretics, nitro, morphine, nesiritide. (all vasodilate) 14.What can you do to prevent pulmonary edema? - ANSWER check lung sounds and avoid FVE 15.What is cardiac tamponade? - ANSWER blood, fluid or exudates have leaked into the pericardial sac resulting in compression of the heart 16.What can cause cardiac tamponade? - ANSWER MVC, right ventricular biopsy, MI, pericarditis, or hemorrhage post CABG 17.What are s/s of cardiac tamponade? - ANSWER decreased CO, increased CVP, decreased BP, muffled heart sounds, distended neck veins, narrowed pulse pressure 18.What are the hallmark signs of cardiac tamponade? - ANSWER increased CVP, decreased BP 19.How do we treat cardiac tamponade? - ANSWER pericardiocentesis to remove blood from around the heart and surgery 20.True or False: If you have atherosclerosis in one place, you have it everywhere - ANSWER true 21.Is an acute material occlusion an emergency? - ANSWER yes 22.What are the s/s of peripheral arterial occlusion? - ANSWER numbness, pain, extremity will be cold, no palpable pulse, more symptomatic in lower extremities 23.What is the hallmark sign of peripheral arterial occlusion? - ANSWER intermittent claudication (pain while walking) 24.What does it mean if the patient complains of pain at rest with peripheral artery disease? - ANSWER severe occlusion 25.How do we treat peripheral artery disease? - ANSWER lower extremities, treat with angioplasty or endarterectomy 26.The nurse is caring for the client immediately after insertion of a permanent demand pacemaker via the right subclavian vein. The nurse prevents dislodgement of the pacing catheter by implementing which intervention? - ANSWER Limiting movement and abduction of the right arm 27.A nurse is asked to assist another health care member in providing care to a client who is placed in a modified Trendelenburg's position. The nurse interprets that the client is likely being treated for which condition? - ANSWER Shock 28.When preparing a client for a pericardiocentesis, how does the nurse position the client? - ANSWER Supine with the head of bed elevated at a 45- to 60-degree angle 29.Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) is prescribed for a client before a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). When the nurse takes the aspirin to the client, the client asks the nurse about its purpose. The nurse informs the client that the aspirin will: - ANSWER Prevent the formation of clots 30.A patient with a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is overwhelmed by his diagnosis and the known complications of the disease. How can the patient best make known his wishes for care as his disease progresses? A. Ensure that witnesses are present when he provides instruction. B. Designate a most responsible physician (MRP) early in the course of the disease. C. Prepare an advance directive. D. Collaborate with representatives from the Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis Association. - ANSWER C. Prepare an advance directive. Patients with ALS are encouraged to complete an advance directive or "living will" to preserve their autonomy in decision making. None of the other listed actions constitutes a legally binding statement of end-of-life care. 31.A patient with a documented history of seizure disorder experiences a generalized seizure. What nursing action is most appropriate? A. Restrain the patient to prevent injury. B. Open the patient's jaws to insert an oral airway. C. Loosen the patient's restrictive clothing. D. Place patient in high Fowler's position. - ANSWER C. Loosen the patient's restrictive clothing. An appropriate nursing intervention would include loosening any restrictive clothing on the patient. No attempt should be made to restrain the patient during the seizure because muscular contractions are strong and restraint can produce injury. Do not attempt to pry open jaws that are clenched in a spasm to insert anything. Broken teeth and injury to the lips and tongue may result from such an action. If possible, place the patient on one side with head flexed forward, which allows the tongue to fall forward and facilitates drainage of saliva and mucus. 32.As a clinic nurse, you are caring for a patient who has been prescribed an antibiotic for tonsillitis and has been instructed to take the antibiotic for 10 days. When you do a follow-up call with this patient, you are informed that the patient is feeling better and is stopping the medication after taking it for 4 days. What information should you provide to this patient? A. Finish all the antibiotics to eliminate the organism completely. B. Keep the remaining tablets for an infection at a later time. C. Discontinue the medications if the fever is gone. D. Dispose of the remaining medication in a biohazard receptacle. - ANSWER A. Finish all the antibiotics to eliminate the organism completely. The nurse informs the patient about the need to take the full course of any prescribed antibiotic. Antibiotics should be taken for the entire 10-day period to eliminate the microorganisms. A patient should never be instructed to keep leftover antibiotics for use at a later time. Even if the fever or other symptoms are gone, the medications should be continued. Antibiotics do not need to be disposed of in a biohazard receptacle, though they should be discarded appropriately. 33.A patient with metastatic cancer has developed trigeminal neuralgia and is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for pain relief. What principle applies to the administration of this medication? A. Side effects of the medication include renal dysfunction. B. Tegretol is not known to have serious adverse effects. C. The medication should be first taken in the maximum dosage form to be effective. D. The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression. - ANSWER D. The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression. 34.The anticonvulsant agents carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin) relieve pain in most patients diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia by reducing the transmission of impulses at certain nerve terminals. Side effects include nausea, dizziness, drowsiness, and aplastic anemia. Carbamazepine should be gradually increased until pain relief is obtained. 35.A nurse is caring for a patient who has been scheduled for a bone scan. What should the nurse teach the patient about this diagnostic test? A. "You'll be encouraged to drink water after the administration of the radioisotope injection." B. "This is a common test that can be safely performed on anyone." C. "You will not be allowed fluid for 2 hours before and 3 hours after the test." D. "The test is brief and requires that you drink a calcium solution 2 hours before the test." - ANSWER A. "You'll be encouraged to drink water after the administration of the radioisotope injection." It is important to encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids to help distribute and eliminate the isotopic after it is injected. There are important contraindications to the procedure, include pregnancy or an allergy to the radioisotope. The test requires the injection of an intravenous radioisotope and the scan is preformed 2 to 3 hours after the isotope is injected. A calcium solution is not utilized. 36.The nurse is caring for a patient with lung metastases who just underwent a mediastinotomy. What should be the focus of the nurse's postprocedure care? A. Administering oral suction as needed B. Maintaining the patient's chest tube C. Assisting with pulmonary function testing (PFT) D. Performing chest physiotherapy - ANSWER B. Maintaining the patient's chest tube Chest tube drainage is required after mediastinotomy. PFT, chest physiotherapy, and oral suctioning would all be contraindicated because of the patient's unstable health status. 37.The nurse is assessing a patient who has a chest tube in place for the treatment of a pneumothorax. The nurse observes that the water level in the water seal rises and falls in rhythm with the patient's respirations. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding? A. Encourage the patient to do deep breathing and coughing exercises. B. Gently reinsert the chest tube 1 to 2 cm and observe if the water level stabilizes. C. Document that the chest drainage system is operating as it is intended. D. Inform the physician promptly that there is in imminent leak in the drainage system. - ANSWER C. Document that the chest drainage system is operating as it is intended. Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal shows effective connection between the pleural cavity and the drainage chamber and indicates that the drainage system remains patent. No further action is needed. 38.The nurse is planning discharge education for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. The nurse knows to include information about factors that precipitate an attack. What would the nurse be correct in teaching the patient to avoid? A. Washing his face B. Drinking large amounts of fluids C. Using artificial tears D. Exposing his skin to sunlight - ANSWER A. Washing his face Washing the face should be avoided if possible because this activity can trigger an attack of pain in a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. Using artificial tears would be an appropriate behavior. Exposing the skin to sunlight would not be harmful to this patient. Temperature extremes in beverages should be avoided. 39.The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with Bell's palsy. The nurse's plan of care should address what characteristic manifestation of this disease? A. Diplopia B. Tinnitus C. Facial paralysis D. Pain at the base of the tongue - ANSWER C. Facial paralysis Bell's palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis. It does not result in diplopia, pain at the base of the tongue, or tinnitus. 40.The nurse is caring for a patient who is in status epilepticus. What medication does the nurse know may be given to halt the seizure immediately? A. Oral lorazepam (Ativan) B. Intravenous phenobarbital (Luminal) C. Oral phenytoin (Dilantin) D. Intravenous diazepam (Valium) - ANSWER D. Intravenous diazepam (Valium) Medical management of status epilepticus includes IV diazepam (Valium) and IV lorazepam (Ativan) given slowly in an attempt to halt seizures immediately. Other medications (phenytoin, phenobarbital) are given later to maintain a seizure-free state. Oral medications are not given during status epileptics. 41.A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient from the emergency department after receiving treatment for an ankle sprain. While providing discharge education, the nurse should encourage which of the following? A. Keep an elastic compression bandage on the ankle. B. Apply heat for the first 24 to 48 hours after the injury. C. Maintain the ankle in a dependent position. D. Exercise hourly by performing rotation exercises of the ankle. - ANSWER A. Keep an elastic compression bandage on the ankle. Treatment of a sprain consists of resting and elevating the affected part, applying cold, and using a compression bandage. After the acute inflammatory stage (usually 24 to 48 hours after injury), heat may be applied intermittently. Rotation exercises would likely be painful. 42.The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who developed a pulmonary embolism after total knee surgery. The patient has been converted from heparin to sodium warfarin (Coumadin) anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse teach the client? A. Anticoagulant therapy usually lasts between 3 and 6 months. B. Coumadin must be taken concurrent with ASA to achieve anticoagulation. C. Coumadin will continue to break up the clot over a period of weeks D. He should take a vitamin supplement containing vitamin K - ANSWER A. Anticoagulant therapy usually lasts between 3 and 6 months. Anticoagulant therapy prevents further clot formation, but cannot be used to dissolve a clot. The therapy continues for approximately 3 to 6 months and is not combined with ASA. Vitamin K reverses the effect of anticoagulant therapy and normally should not be taken. 43.A nurse is admitting a patient with a severe migraine headache and a history of acute coronary syndrome. What migraine medication would the nurse question for this patient? A. Naratriptan (Amerge) B. Zolmitriptan (Zomig) C. Rizatriptan (Maxalt) D. Sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex) - ANSWER D. Sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex) Triptans can cause chest pain and are contraindicated in patients with ischemic heart disease. Maxalt, Amerge, and Zomig are triptans used in routine clinical use for the treatment of migraine headaches