Page |1
Msn 622 Final Exam| Actual
Exam Questions And Correct
Detailed Answers |Ace Your
Grades
blowing - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 67-year-old man with a history of
hypertension and tobacco use presents with a two-day history of
hypogastric pain. An examination reveals a 5 cm, non-tender, pulsatile
abdominal mass above the umbilicus. Which of the following type of
sounds might be heard upon auscultation at the midline, two inches
cephalad to the umbilicus?
ultrasound every 3 years - CORRECT-ANSWER-What is the
recommended management for a patient with a 3.5 cm abdominal
aortic aneurysm?
, Page |2
immediate surgery - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 75-year-old man presents to
the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain
and sweating. The pain started about an hour ago and is becoming
worse with time. He has been diagnosed with hypertension and
diabetes and is on amlodipine and metformin, respectively. On
presentation, the vital signs show blood pressure 70/40 mmHg, pulse
140/min, respiratory rate 32/min, temperature 38.5 C (101.3 F), and
oxygen saturation 87% at room air. On physical examination of the
abdomen, generalized tenderness and guarding are seen. There is a
midline pulsatile mass. What is the next best step in the management
of this patient?
abdominal CT - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 67-year-old male with a history of
hypertension and nicotine dependence presents to the emergency
department with sudden onset of abdominal pain radiating to the back.
There is no history of alcohol use. On examination, he is thin, pale, and
diaphoretic. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg and
a heart rate of 95 bpm. Which of the following is most likely to confirm
the diagnosis?
Surgery will improve 5-year survival - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 78-year-old
is found to have an asymptomatic pulsatile abdominal mass. The
ultrasound shows an abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 5.5 cm.
, Page |3
Which of the following statements concerning this patient's condition is
correct?
stress electrocardiogram - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 65-year-old man
presents to the office with complaints of occasional chest pain. The
patient has a past medical history significant for hypertension, diabetes
mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. The patient states he experiences chest
pain on exertion, which is only relieved on rest. An electrocardiogram is
normal. Which of the following is the next step in management?
Determining the precipitating factors for his condition - CORRECT-
ANSWER-A 65-year-old man presents with complaints of chest pain
that started 30 mins ago but stopped on his way to the hospital. The
patient has a past medical history significant for hypertension and
diabetes mellitus. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. A stress ECG
shows mild ST elevations after 12 minutes of exercise. A diagnosis of
stable angina is made. Which of the following should be the first step in
counseling the patient about his condition?
hypertensive emergency - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 47-year-old male
presents to the office for routine health maintenance. His blood
, Page |4
pressure is 182/138, with all other vital signs within normal limits. The
patient is currently complaining of a headache and blurred vision but
denies chest pain, shortness of breath, and abdominal pain. Under
which of the following forms of hypertension would this patient be
classified
Losartan/hydrochlorothiazide and atorvastatin - CORRECT-ANSWER-A
65-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes comes into the
provider's office complaining of blurry vision, nosebleeds, and
exertional chest pain for the past six months. The blood pressure is
measured to be 160/94 mmHg. A CT angiogram is performed, which
reveals partially occlusive coronary artery plaques. Which of the
following medication regimens would be most appropriate for this
patient?
Reassure him that this is expected from his ACE inhibitor and continue
therapy with periodic monitoring. - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 68-year-old
male with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and
diabetic nephropathy presented to the clinic for a follow-up
appointment. His blood pressure on the last visit was 150/90 mmHg. He
was called in for a follow-up appointment in 4 weeks to monitor his
blood pressure. The blood pressure on this visit is 168/105 mmHg, and
HbA1c is 8.9%. His antihypertensive regimen was adjusted, and an ACE
inhibitor was added. He is on metformin and sitagliptin for diabetes
Msn 622 Final Exam| Actual
Exam Questions And Correct
Detailed Answers |Ace Your
Grades
blowing - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 67-year-old man with a history of
hypertension and tobacco use presents with a two-day history of
hypogastric pain. An examination reveals a 5 cm, non-tender, pulsatile
abdominal mass above the umbilicus. Which of the following type of
sounds might be heard upon auscultation at the midline, two inches
cephalad to the umbilicus?
ultrasound every 3 years - CORRECT-ANSWER-What is the
recommended management for a patient with a 3.5 cm abdominal
aortic aneurysm?
, Page |2
immediate surgery - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 75-year-old man presents to
the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain
and sweating. The pain started about an hour ago and is becoming
worse with time. He has been diagnosed with hypertension and
diabetes and is on amlodipine and metformin, respectively. On
presentation, the vital signs show blood pressure 70/40 mmHg, pulse
140/min, respiratory rate 32/min, temperature 38.5 C (101.3 F), and
oxygen saturation 87% at room air. On physical examination of the
abdomen, generalized tenderness and guarding are seen. There is a
midline pulsatile mass. What is the next best step in the management
of this patient?
abdominal CT - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 67-year-old male with a history of
hypertension and nicotine dependence presents to the emergency
department with sudden onset of abdominal pain radiating to the back.
There is no history of alcohol use. On examination, he is thin, pale, and
diaphoretic. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg and
a heart rate of 95 bpm. Which of the following is most likely to confirm
the diagnosis?
Surgery will improve 5-year survival - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 78-year-old
is found to have an asymptomatic pulsatile abdominal mass. The
ultrasound shows an abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 5.5 cm.
, Page |3
Which of the following statements concerning this patient's condition is
correct?
stress electrocardiogram - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 65-year-old man
presents to the office with complaints of occasional chest pain. The
patient has a past medical history significant for hypertension, diabetes
mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. The patient states he experiences chest
pain on exertion, which is only relieved on rest. An electrocardiogram is
normal. Which of the following is the next step in management?
Determining the precipitating factors for his condition - CORRECT-
ANSWER-A 65-year-old man presents with complaints of chest pain
that started 30 mins ago but stopped on his way to the hospital. The
patient has a past medical history significant for hypertension and
diabetes mellitus. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. A stress ECG
shows mild ST elevations after 12 minutes of exercise. A diagnosis of
stable angina is made. Which of the following should be the first step in
counseling the patient about his condition?
hypertensive emergency - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 47-year-old male
presents to the office for routine health maintenance. His blood
, Page |4
pressure is 182/138, with all other vital signs within normal limits. The
patient is currently complaining of a headache and blurred vision but
denies chest pain, shortness of breath, and abdominal pain. Under
which of the following forms of hypertension would this patient be
classified
Losartan/hydrochlorothiazide and atorvastatin - CORRECT-ANSWER-A
65-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes comes into the
provider's office complaining of blurry vision, nosebleeds, and
exertional chest pain for the past six months. The blood pressure is
measured to be 160/94 mmHg. A CT angiogram is performed, which
reveals partially occlusive coronary artery plaques. Which of the
following medication regimens would be most appropriate for this
patient?
Reassure him that this is expected from his ACE inhibitor and continue
therapy with periodic monitoring. - CORRECT-ANSWER-A 68-year-old
male with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and
diabetic nephropathy presented to the clinic for a follow-up
appointment. His blood pressure on the last visit was 150/90 mmHg. He
was called in for a follow-up appointment in 4 weeks to monitor his
blood pressure. The blood pressure on this visit is 168/105 mmHg, and
HbA1c is 8.9%. His antihypertensive regimen was adjusted, and an ACE
inhibitor was added. He is on metformin and sitagliptin for diabetes
