1. A client on clozapine reports fever and sore throat. What is the
priority action?
A. Reassure and monitor
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Check WBC count
D. Suggest lozenges
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis. A fever + sore
throat may signal low WBC—check labs.
2. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums. What
should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect. Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
3. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
4. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
,propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
5. A nurse monitors a client taking lamotrigine. What adverse
effect should prompt discontinuation?
A. Rash
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Drowsiness
Answer: A
Rationale: Lamotrigine can cause a life-threatening rash (e.g.,
Stevens-Johnson syndrome). Report immediately.
6. A nurse is educating a client on atorvastatin. What side effect
should the client report immediately?
A. Headache
B. Muscle pain
C. Drowsiness
D. Constipation
Answer: B
Rationale: Myopathy can occur with statins and may progress to
rhabdomyolysis. Report muscle pain immediately.
7. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
, C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
8. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
9. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
10. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
priority action?
A. Reassure and monitor
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Check WBC count
D. Suggest lozenges
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis. A fever + sore
throat may signal low WBC—check labs.
2. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums. What
should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect. Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
3. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
4. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
,propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
5. A nurse monitors a client taking lamotrigine. What adverse
effect should prompt discontinuation?
A. Rash
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Drowsiness
Answer: A
Rationale: Lamotrigine can cause a life-threatening rash (e.g.,
Stevens-Johnson syndrome). Report immediately.
6. A nurse is educating a client on atorvastatin. What side effect
should the client report immediately?
A. Headache
B. Muscle pain
C. Drowsiness
D. Constipation
Answer: B
Rationale: Myopathy can occur with statins and may progress to
rhabdomyolysis. Report muscle pain immediately.
7. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
, C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
8. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
9. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
10. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
