1. A client on clozapine reports fever and sore throat. What is the
priority action?
A. Reassure and monitor
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Check WBC count
D. Suggest lozenges
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis. A fever + sore
throat may signal low WBC—check labs.
2. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
3. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
4. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
,What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
5. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir. What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
D. "Expect yellowing of the eyes."
Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity. Hydration is
essential to reduce the risk.
6. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
7. A child prescribed methylphenidate for ADHD should be
monitored for which effect?
A. Drowsiness
B. Increased appetite
, C. Weight loss and insomnia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulants like methylphenidate commonly cause
decreased appetite, insomnia, and weight loss.
8. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction is
appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
9. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
10. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. HR 62 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. BP 140/88 mmHg
D. Urine output 400 mL in 8 hours
Answer: B
priority action?
A. Reassure and monitor
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Check WBC count
D. Suggest lozenges
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis. A fever + sore
throat may signal low WBC—check labs.
2. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
3. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
4. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
,What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
5. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir. What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
D. "Expect yellowing of the eyes."
Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity. Hydration is
essential to reduce the risk.
6. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
7. A child prescribed methylphenidate for ADHD should be
monitored for which effect?
A. Drowsiness
B. Increased appetite
, C. Weight loss and insomnia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulants like methylphenidate commonly cause
decreased appetite, insomnia, and weight loss.
8. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction is
appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
9. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
10. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. HR 62 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. BP 140/88 mmHg
D. Urine output 400 mL in 8 hours
Answer: B
