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A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure.
He has no additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise
asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood pressure of 162/95
mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable.
all the labs are normal. (Claire's notes, ily)
According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart
Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the most
appropriate medication to initiate at this time?
A) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily
B) Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily
C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg daily
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,D) Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily
E) Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg daily - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔C
During rounds at the nursing home, you are informed that there are two
residents on the unit with laboratory-confirmed influenza. According to CDC
guidelines, who should receive chemoprophylaxis for influenza?
A) Only symptomatic residents on the same unit
B) Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility
C) All asymptomatic residents on the same unit
D) All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms
E) All staff regardless of symptoms - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔C
A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of mild to moderate
pelvic pain. She has had two male sex partners in the last 6 months and
uses oral contraceptives and sometimes condoms. A physical examination
reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and moderate cervical motion and
uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a urinalysis are negative. Vaginal
microscopy shows only WBCs.
The initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease in
this patient
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,A) is appropriate at this time
B) requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-reactive protein
level
C) should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing
D) should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography - 🧠 ANSWER
✔✔A
A 24-year-old patient wants to start the process of transitioning from female
to male. He has been working with a psychiatrist who has confirmed the
diagnosis of gender dysphoria.
Which one of the following would be the best initial treatment for this
patient?
A) ClomipheneB) Letrozole (Femara) C) Leuprolide (Eligard)
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone) E) Testosterone - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔E
Based on American Cancer Society guidelines for cervical cancer
screening, when should HPV DNA co-testing first be performed along with
Papanicolaou testing?
A) At the onset of sexual activity
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, B) At age 21
C) At age 25
D) At age 30
E) At age 35 - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔D
Long-term proton pump inhibitor use is associated with an increased risk
for
A) Barrett's esophagus
B) gout
C) hypertension
D) pneumonia
E) type 2 diabetes - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔D
An 87-year-old female comes to your office for an annual health
maintenance visit. She appears cachectic and tells you that for the past 6
months she has had a decreased appetite and generalized muscle
weakness. The patient is alert and oriented to person and place. She has a
10% weight loss, dry mucous membranes, and tenting of the skin on the
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