Straighterline Microbiology BIO250 Final Proctored Exam Review – DONE APRIL 2025 (QUESTIONS 1 – 60)

Straighterline Microbiology BIO250 Final Proctored Exam Review – DONE APRIL 2025 (QUESTIONS 1 – 60) Ace Your Online Courses & Exams – Stress-Free! Struggling with online classes, proctored exams, or endless assignments? Let our team of expert tutors handle it for you! Whether it's StraighterLine, ATI, HESI, NCLEX, Portage Learning, Sophia, or any Nursing/Business course, we’ve got you covered. Our Services: Online Exam Assistance (Even Proctored!) – Guaranteed Passing! Full Course Attendance – We attend classes for you! Essays, Research Papers & Discussion Posts – Top-quality, plagiarism-free. Assignments & Homework Help – Timely & flawless submissions. Why Choose Us? 100% Confidential & Secure Expert Tutors in Every Subject Fast Responses & Reliable Results Email: : +1 (540) 753-5914 Don’t Stress – Let Us Handle the Hard Work While You Succeed! Your success is our priority – contact us today! Started on April 2025 State Finished Completed on April 2025 Time taken 1 hour Grade 265.00 out of 300.00 (88.33%) Question 1 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Why do scientists use binomial nomenclature instead of common descriptive names for organisms? Select one: a. Binomial nomenclature allows for flexibility in naming organisms. b. Common descriptive names are difficult to pronounce. c. Binomial nomenclature is only used for well-known organisms. d. Common descriptive names may lead to confusion if similar species are discovered. Question 2 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Match the following scientists with their respective contributions. Column A Column B A. Carolus Linnaeus 1. Proposed the Linnaean taxonomy, establishing a systematic system for categorizing and naming organisms. B. Ernst Haeckel 2. Proposed the addition of the kingdom Protista and later the kingdom Monera to the Tree of Life. C. Robert Whittaker 3. Proposed the addition of the kingdom Fungi and introduced the concept of superkingdoms to taxonomy. D. Carl Woese and George Fox 4. Developed a genetics-based tree of life, revealing significant differences in ribosomal RNA gene sequences and leading to the classification of three domains: Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya. Select one: a. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 b. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 c. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 d. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 Question 3 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following bonds is not found in the tertiary structure of a protein? Select one: a. Peptide bond b. Ionic bond c. H-bond d. Glyosidic bond Question 4 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following processes involves the formation of a glycosidic bond between two monosaccharide molecules? Select one: a. Release of one oxygen atom from one molecule and one hydrogen atom from another molecule b. Only the release of a hydrogen atom from one molecule c. Release of one hydrogen atom from one molecule and one hydroxyl group from another molecule d. Release of a hydrogen atom from both molecules Question 5 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Consider the following and choose the correct option. Statement: A human can live through a fasting day. Reason: Carbohydrates are efficiently stored in the body as starch and glycogen, providing readily accessible energy when needed. Select one: a. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct because carbohydrates are primarily stored as fats in the body. b. The statement is incorrect because humans cannot survive without food for an entire day. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct because carbohydrates are mainly stored as proteins in the body. d. Both the statement and reason are correct, and the reason explains how stored carbohydrates sustain energy during fasting. Question 6 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which characteristic distinguishes archaeal membranes from those of bacteria and eukaryotes? Select one: a. Formation of lipid monolayers b. Unique composition of phospholipids c. Variation in fatty acid composition d. Presence of glycoproteins and glycolipids Question 7 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text In a microbiology laboratory, scientists are investigating a newly discovered strain of bacteria that exhibits resistance to multiple antibiotics. Upon genetic analysis, they identify a small, circular DNA molecule that carries genes responsible for this antibiotic resistance. This genetic element is capable of replicating independently of the main bacterial chromosome. What is the term for this small, circular DNA molecule? Select one: a. Nucleoid-associated protein (NAP) b. Histone-like DNA-organizing protein c. Plasmid d. Chromosome Question 8 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which statement accurately describes a characteristic feature of archaeal cell walls? Select one: a. Archaeal cell walls consist of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) molecules, contributing to their structural integrity. b. Pseudopeptidoglycan in archaeal cell walls is identical to peptidoglycan found in bacterial cell walls. c. Some archaea possess a layer of glycoproteins or polysaccharides as their cell wall, while others lack cell walls entirely. d. Archaeal cell walls contain peptidoglycan similar to that found in bacterial cell walls. Question 9 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Match the features of vegetative cells and endospores based on their characteristics: Feature Vegetative Cells Endospores Metabolic Activity I II Resistance to Environmental Stressors III IV Select one: a. I-Present II-Present III-Absent IV-Absent b. I-Present II-Absent III-Absent IV-Present c. I-Absent II-Present III-Absent IV-Present d. I-Absent II-Absent III-Present IV-Present Question 10 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which organelle is responsible for housing the cell's genetic material? Select one: a. Nucleus b. Mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus d. Endoplasmic reticulum Question 11 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text What is the primary function of the basal body in eukaryotic flagella and cilia? Select one: a. It anchors the flagella and cilia to the cell membrane, facilitating their movement. b. It functions as a sensory organelle, detecting environmental cues for flagellar and ciliary movement. c. It provides structural support to the flagella and cilia, ensuring their rigidity during movement. d. It serves as a site for energy production required for flagellar and ciliary movement. Question 12 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements about Amoebozoa is correct? Select one: a. They move using flagella. b. Entamoeba histolytica causes sleeping sickness. c. Dictyostelium discoideum is a cellular slime mold. d. Naegleria fowleri is a medically beneficial member of Amoebozoa. Question 13 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Match the following structures within the nucleus with their functions: Column A Column B 1. Nucleolus A. Site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and preribosomal assembly 2. Nuclear envelope B. Regulates the movement of materials into and out of the nucleus 3. Nuclear pores C. Meshwork of intermediate filaments that determines the shape of the nucleus 4. Nuclear lamina D. Consists of two lipid bilayers with unique lipids and proteins, enclosing the nucleus Select one: a. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C b. 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C c. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A d. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C Question 14 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text What is the first stage in the infection process of a bacteriophage? Select one: a. Attachment b. Penetration c. Biosynthesis d. Release Question 15 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text What is an example of an immortal cell line widely used in medical research? Select one: a. Secondary cell culture b. Continuous cell line c. HeLa cell line d. Primary cell culture Question 16 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a category in the informal grouping of viruses? Select one: a. Naked or enveloped structure b. Segmented or non segmented genomes c. Single-stranded (ss) or double-stranded (ds) DNA or ss or ds RNA genomes d. The virus’s rate of mutation Question 17 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements about plant viruses is true? Select one: a. All plant viruses exhibit a broad host range across various plant families. b. Some plant viruses, like the citrus tristeza virus, infect only a limited number of plants within specific genera. c. Viruses that infect plants are classified as lytic parasites. d. Plant viruses can only be transmitted through contact between plants. Question 18 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which statement about viral transmission via arthropods is incorrect? Select one: a. Arthropods such as mosquitoes, ticks, and flies can act as vectors for viral diseases. b. Biological transmission involves the arthropod carrying the virus inside its body and transmitting it through biting. c. Mechanical transmission occurs when the arthropod carries the virus on the outside of its body and transmits it through physical contact. d. Biological transmission occurs when the arthropod carries the virus outside its body and transmits it through biting. Question 19 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text What is the purpose of serial dilution in microbiological techniques? Select one: a. To increase the concentration of microorganisms for easier counting b. To introduce genetic mutations into the microorganisms c. To decrease the concentration of microorganisms to obtain plates with a suitable CFU range d. To sterilize the culture medium before plating Question 20 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements accurately describes the limitations of the plate count method for estimating viable bacterial cells? Select one: a. Plate counts overestimate the number of viable cells because some bacteria may not grow on the chosen media. b. Plate counts are a rapid and reliable method for quantifying all types of microorganisms in a sample. c. Plate counts can only be used for pure cultures of a single bacterial species. d. Plate counts underestimate the number of viable cells because some bacteria may clump together and form a single colony. Question 21 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following statement accurately depicts the experimental procedure within the MPN method? Select one: a. The MPN method involves inoculating lactose broth tubes with diverse sample dilutions to track coliform proliferation. b. The sample undergoes three distinct dilutions: 5 mL, 3 mL, and 2 mL, respectively. c. Coliforms exhibit a predilection for fermenting sucrose, as illustrated by the MPN method. d. The pH indicator in lactose broth tubes transitions from blue to green during coliform fermentation. Question 22 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Select all enzymes involved in the detoxification of reactive oxygen species (ROS) in microbial cells: I. Superoxide dismutase (SOD) II. Peroxidase III. Catalase IV. Nitric oxide synthase Select one: a. Only Catalase b. Only Superoxide dismutase (SOD) c. Catalase and Nitric oxide synthase d. Superoxide dismutase (SOD), Peroxidase, and Catalase Question 23 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following reactions connects glycolysis with the Krebs cycle? Select one: a. Reductive decarboxylation b. Oxidative carboxylation c. Reductive carboxylation d. Oxidative decarboxylation Question 24 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not the product of the catabolic process? Select one: a. Water b. ATP c. CO2 d. Polysaccharide Question 25 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not a characteristic of the non-cyclic photophosphorylation? Select one: a. Production of oxygen and ATP b. Action of NADP+ reductase c. Production of ATP only d. Production of the NADPH Question 26 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following options depicts a perfect match? Stage Molecules of Reduced Coenzymes Theoretical Maximum Yield of ATP Molecules 1. Glycolysis (EMP) A. 2 NADH P. 8 ATP 2. Transition reaction B. 6 NADH, 2 FADH2 Q. 24 ATP 3. Krebs cycle C. 4 NADH, 3 FADH2 R. 32 ATP Select one: a. All matches are incorrect. b. 2-B-Q c. 1-A-P d. 3-C-R Question 27 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which technique starts with a DNA sequence to determine the resulting phenotype? Select one: a. Reverse genetics b. Proteomics c. Transcriptomics d. Genomics Question 28 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text What was the significance of the discovery of mRNA in 1961? Select one: a. It provided evidence for the genetic code. b. It demonstrated the existence of an intermediary between DNA and protein. c. It showed that RNA is more stable than previously thought. d. It led to the discovery of ribosomal RNA. Question 29 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text How does electroporation function in transfection? Select one: a. To directly inject DNA into the cells b. To shoot DNA-coated particles into the cells c. To create temporary openings in the cell membranes by short electric pulse d. To introduce genes into the cells. Question 30 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following experimental observations from Hershey and Chase's 1952 experiments provided definitive evidence that DNA is the genetic material? Select one: a. The protein coat labeled with radioactive phosphorus 32P was found in the supernatant after centrifugation. b. The DNA labeled with radioactive sulfur 35S was found in the bacterial cells after centrifugation. c. The DNA labeled with radioactive phosphorus 32P was found in the bacterial cells after centrifugation. d. The protein coat labeled with radioactive sulfur 35S was found in the supernatant after centrifugation. Question 31 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which example represents a pathogen typically handled in a Biological Safety Level 3 (BSL-3) laboratory? Select one: a. Noninfectious bacteria b. Nonpathogenic strains of Bacillus subtilis c. West Nile virus d. Baculoviruses (insect viruses) Question 32 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Statement: The FDA banned the marketing of over-the-counter antiseptic products containing triclosan and 18 other chemicals in 2016 due to concerns about safety and efficacy. Reason: The ban was imposed because of insufficient evidence regarding the safety and efficacy of triclosan and other chemicals, as well as concerns about potential health risks associated with long-term exposure. Choose the correct option. Select one: a. Both the statement and reason are false. b. The statement is false, but the reason is true. c. Both the statement and reason are true, and the reason explains the statement. d. The statement is true, but the reason is false. Question 33 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text How are hypochlorite salts, such as sodium and calcium hypochlorites, commonly used in disinfection? Select one: a. They are applied directly to surfaces in food processing plants to kill bacteria and viruses. b. They are added to swimming pools to maintain chlorine levels and prevent microbial growth. c. They are ingested by individuals to treat gastrointestinal infections caused by foodborne pathogens. d. They are mixed with water to produce chlorine gas for use in drinking water treatment plants. Question 34 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Read the assertion with reason and choose the correct option. Assertion: Longer exposure times to a disinfecting agent are required to kill a high-population load of microbes compared to a low-population load. Reason: Microbial death of a population exposed to a specific protocol is logarithmic in nature. Select one: a. The assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect. b. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect. c. Both the assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. d. Both the assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. Question 35 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text How do bacteria primarily develop resistance through chromosomal mutations? Select one: a. By transferring resistance genes via plasmids b. By inducing alterations in the pathogen's chromosome c. By altering the composition of the outer membrane d. By modifying the drug's chemical structure Question 36 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which antiviral drug is used to prevent the spread of influenza virus within the host? Select one: a. Zanamivir b. Acyclovir c. Ritonavir d. Ribavirin Question 37 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which statement accurately describes the mode of action of oxazolidinones as protein synthesis inhibitors? Select one: a. Oxazolidinones inhibit peptide bond formation by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit. b. Oxazolidinones block the elongation of proteins by inhibiting peptide bond formation between specific combinations of amino acids. c. Oxazolidinones prevent the initiation complex formation for translation by targeting the 50S ribosomal subunit. d. Oxazolidinones impair the proofreading ability of the ribosomal complex, leading to mismatches between codons and anticodons. Question 38 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Read these statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Artemisinin is primarily recognized for its effectiveness against malaria due to its ability to produce reactive oxygen species (ROS) in target cells, damaging them. Statement 2: Semisynthetic derivatives of artemisinin have been developed to improve water solubility, thereby enhancing their bioavailability compared to the natural form. Select one: a. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false. b. Statement 1 is false, and Statement 2 is true. c. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true. d. Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is false. Question 39 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text A 70-year-old female patient with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and recent hospitalization for a complicated UTI presents to the urology clinic for follow-up. Despite previous antibiotic treatments, her UTI symptoms persist, and urine culture results indicate the presence of multidrug-resistant Gram-negative bacteria. The healthcare team decides to initiate antibiotic therapy to address the persistent UTI. Considering the patient's history of recurrent UTIs and the presence of multidrug-resistant Gram-negative bacteria, which of the following statements regarding the use of polymyxins in this scenario is most accurate? Select one: a. Oral administration of colistin should be considered as an alternative treatment to intravenous colistin to avoid systemic side effects while targeting multidrug-resistant bacteria. b. Topical application of polymyxin B ointment would be the most effective treatment option for eradicating the multidrug-resistant bacteria causing the UTI and preventing recurrence. c. Intravenous colistin may be initiated as a first-line treatment to rapidly eliminate the multidrug-resistant bacteria causing the UTI and prevent further complications. d. Intravenous colistin should be reserved as a last-resort treatment option due to its potential for nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity, especially in elderly patients with a history of recurrent UTIs. Question 40 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which feature enables pathogens to persist in nonliving reservoirs without multiplying? Select one: a. Rapid mutation rates b. Dormancy and resilience c. Active replication d. Direct transmission to humans Question 41 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text In a small town, a sudden increase in the number of cases of respiratory illness has been reported. The local health department suspects an outbreak of influenza. What type of disease occurrence would this situation most likely be classified as? Select one: a. Sporadic disease b. Endemic disease c. Epidemic disease d. Pandemic disease Question 42 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which statement best differentiates between influenza and infection by Helicobacter pylori in terms of their duration and onset? Select one: a. Influenza is caused by a virus, while infection by Helicobacter pylori is caused by a bacterium. b. Influenza primarily affects the gastrointestinal system, while infection by Helicobacter pylori primarily affects the respiratory system. c. Influenza is preventable through vaccination, while infection by Helicobacter pylori can only be treated with antibiotics. d. Influenza has a rapid onset and typically resolves within a few days, while infection by Helicobacter pylori persists for an extended period, often causing chronic gastritis. Question 43 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text John recently recovered from a bout of influenza after completing a full course of antiviral medication and rest. However, a few days after his recovery, he begins to experience symptoms such as persistent cough, difficulty breathing, and fever. Concerned about his health, John decides to visit the hospital to determine the cause of his sudden illness. What is the most likely explanation for John's symptoms of pneumonia following a recent diagnosis of influenza? Select one: a. John's initial influenza infection was not fully resolved, leading to a relapse of symptoms and subsequent development of pneumonia. b. John's influenza infection weakened his lung's defense mechanisms, making him more susceptible to secondary bacterial infections like pneumonia. c. The symptoms are a result of an allergic reaction to the antiviral medication. d. The pneumonia is a direct consequence of the immune response to the influenza virus. Question 44 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements is incorrect? Select one: a. Movement of cilia adds to the mechanical defense of the body. b. Lysozyme present in the enzyme constitutes the physical and physiological defense. c. Physical defense acts on all pathogen non-specifically. d. Cytokines secreted by the T cells mediated the chemical defense. Question 45 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is the correct statement with respect to fever and inflammation? Select one: a. Granulomas occur only in acute inflammation and do not involve macrophages. b. Granulomas are temporary structures that resolve completely once the infection is controlled. c. Granulomas, such as tubercles in tuberculosis, form when white blood cells encapsulate infected tissue but fail to eliminate the infection. d. Granulomas are formed exclusively in response to bacterial infections and not other pathogens. Question 46 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements is incorrect? Select one: a. T cytotoxic cells induce the apoptosis of the affected cells. b. TH2 stimulates the B cells for antibody production and class switching. c. Granzymes and perforins are part of the humoral immune response. d. T cytotoxic cells are activated by the TH1 cells. Question 47 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following statement is incorrect? Select one: a. Both B cells and macrophages could respond to extracellular antigens. b. Both B cells and macrophages are antigen-presenting cells. c. Both B cells and macrophages phagocytize and process the antigen. d. Both B cells and macrophages are part of the adaptive immune response. Question 48 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text What type of cells release cytokines like interleukin (IL)-4 and IL-13, which activate B cells during the first encounter with an allergen in individuals prone to allergies? Select one: a. Antigen Presenting Cells b. Cytotoxic T cells c. Mast cells d. TH2 cells Question 49 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text What triggers the production of Isohemagglutinin antibodies in plasma? Select one: a. Presence of foreign substances in the bloodstream b. Genetic mutations in the blood cells c. Exposure to environmental antigens from food and microorganisms d. Exposure to antigens on red blood cells Question 50 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following accurately describes a difference between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies in terms of their production? Select one: a. Polyclonal antibodies have higher specificity and affinity for a single epitope compared to monoclonal antibodies. b. Monoclonal antibodies are produced using tissue-culture techniques, whereas polyclonal antibodies are obtained directly from the serum of immunized animals. c. Monoclonal antibodies are less expensive and faster to produce than polyclonal antibodies. d. Polyclonal antibodies are derived from a single clone of B cells, while monoclonal antibodies are derived from multiple clones of B cells. Question 51 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Select all correct treatments and considerations for managing severe systemic anaphylaxis: I) Immediate administration of epinephrine to counteract blood pressure drops II) Use of antihistamines and corticosteroids post-reaction to prevent late-phase reactions III) Long-term desensitization therapy as the first line of immediate response IV) Patients often carry an auto-injector for self-administration of epinephrine. Select one: a. Statements I, II & IV are correct. b. Only Statement III is correct. c. Statements I & III are correct. d. Statement I & II are correct. Question 52 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which bacterial pathogen is known as the causative agent of walking pneumonia? Select one: a. Bordetella pertussis b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae c. Legionella pneumophila d. Chlamydophila pneumoniae Question 53 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which statement accurately describes the variation in skin microbiota across different regions of the body? Select one: a. Sebum-rich areas of the skin harbor microbial communities that are more diverse than those found in drier regions. b. Moist regions of the skin, like the nares and underarms, typically have a microbiota dominated by Betaproteobacteria. c. Microbial diversity is typically higher in moist regions of the skin such as that of the nares (nostrils) and underarms, not only in areas with high sebum production. d. Dry regions of the skin, such as the arms and legs, are primarily inhabited by Corynebacterium and Staphylococcus bacteria. Question 54 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text What potential complication is associated with the administration of antitoxins for diphtheria treatment? Select one: a. Antibiotic resistance development b. Increased production of diphtheria toxins c. Serum Sickness d. Enhanced bacterial growth in the presence of antitoxins Question 55 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Statement: Skin injuries can facilitate the entry of microbes into deeper tissues, increasing the risk of localized or systemic infections. Reason: Damage to the skin disrupts its physical barrier function, allowing microbes to access deeper tissue layers where nutrients are abundant and conditions favor bacterial growth. Find the correct option. Select one: a. Both the statement and reason are correct, but the reason does not adequately explain the statement. b. Both the statement and reason are correct, and the reason justifies the statement. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect. d. The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct. Question 56 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text What selective medium is commonly used for the diagnosis of Vibrio parahemolyticus infection? Select one: a. MacConkey agar b. Eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar c. Blood agar d. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar Question 57 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is typically linked to Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)? Select one: a. Chickenpox b. Oral lesions c. Measles d. Shingles Question 58 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text After returning from a trip to a region known for typhoid fever outbreaks, Emily begins to experience symptoms including high fever, body aches, headache, and nausea. Concerned, she visits her doctor for an examination. Upon further investigation, her doctor suspects typhoid fever and orders diagnostic tests. What diagnostic test is most likely to confirm the presence of typhoid fever in Emily? Select one: a. PCR test b. ELISA serological assay c. Blood culture d. Microscopical examination Question 59 Correct 5.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text A 30-year-old female patient reports frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and a history of imbalanced vaginal microbiota. Laboratory tests reveal a higher vaginal pH and a deficiency in Lactobacillus spp. Based on the scenario, which of the following is a likely contributing factor to the patient's condition? Select one: a. A robust presence of Lactobacillus spp. maintaining a low vaginal pH b. An abundance of lactic-acid–producing Lactobacillus spp. c. A deficiency in Lactobacillus spp. leading to reduced lactic acid, hydrogen peroxide, and bacteriocin production d. Elevated estrogen levels leading to increased glycogen and lactic acid production Question 60 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 5.00 Flag question Question text During a routine gynecological examination, a 28-year-old woman mentions noticing irregular soft pink structures on her external genitalia. She reports no other symptoms. A sample is collected for cytology testing, and the presence of koilocytes is confirmed. What is the most appropriate next step for managing this patient? Select one: a. Order a urine culture to detect the presence of human papillomavirus (HPV). b. Prescribe antifungal medication to treat the irregular structures. c. Conduct a biopsy of the irregular structures to confirm the diagnosis. d. Recommend vaccination against HPV to prevent future complications. 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