NR 507 ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
MIDTERM EXAM PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS 2025
[Document subtitle]
[DATE]
[COMPANY NAME]
[Company address]
,1) Receptors - What promotes inflammation, smooth muscle contraction, vasodilation,
edema, hives, and causes more wakefulness and alertness?
Histamine receptors.
2) What are leukotrienes?
Inflammatory mediators that stimulate contraction of smooth muscles in bronchioles
and cause inflammation in asthma and allergic rhinitis when overproduced.
3) What do H2 receptors do?
They have anti-inflammatory effects, suppress leukocyte function, decrease histamine
release, increase gastric acid production, and promote smooth muscle relaxation.
4) What are prostaglandins?
A group of lipids made at the site of tissue injury that control inflammation, blood clot
formation, and blood flow, and stimulate nerve endings to induce pain.
5) What characterizes allergy Type I IgE-Mediated Response?
Immediate response mediated by IgE, with principal cells being mast cells, and
examples include seasonal allergic rhinitis and hay fever.
6) What organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?
Mitochondria.
7) What is the role of the endoplasmic reticulum?
It forms a maze of passageways for transporting proteins and other materials within the
cell.
8) What do peroxisomes and lysosomes do?
They contain digestive enzymes that break down waste and foreign material.
9) Describe allergy Type II Tissue-Specific Response.
Immediate response mediated by IgG and IgM, with macrophages in tissues as principal
cells, targeting drug allergies and infections.
10) List the five ways Type II hypersensitivity can lead to cell destruction.
1) Destruction by antibody binding, 2) Phagocytosis by macrophages, 3) Damage
triggering neutrophils, 4) NK cells releasing toxic substances, 5) Malfunction without
destruction.
11) What is allergy Type III Immune Complex-Mediated Response?
An immediate response mediated by IgG and IgM involving neutrophils where
antibodies bind to antigens in body fluids, not organ-specific.
12) What characterizes allergy Type IV Cell-Mediated Response?
Delayed hypersensitivity reactions mediated by T-lymphocytes and macrophages,
without antibodies; example: localized contact dermatitis.
,13) Define innate immunity.
It includes physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers that are nonspecific, such as
intact skin and inflammatory responses.
14) What are Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)?
Receptors on the surface of white blood cells that identify self versus foreign material.
15) Define PAMP and DAMP.
PAMP: Pathogen-Associated Molecular Patterns; DAMP: Damage-Associated Molecular
Patterns.
16) What is phagocytosis?
The process involving the interaction of PAMP/DAMP with PRR that stimulates the
vascular response and WBC response to inflammation, involving recognition,
adherence, and destruction of pathogens.
17) What characterizes neutrophils?
They make up 70% of white blood cells and are the first to respond to invasion, capable
of killing 5-20 bacteria.
18) What is the role of monocytes?
They arrive within 24 hours of an invasion and become macrophages involved in the
inflammatory response.
19) What are eosinophils known as?
Cleanup cells that remove the last bits of debris.
20) Define phagocytes.
Cells that actively digest and kill pathogens, eventually becoming pus.
21) What is the function of Alpha-1 Antitrypsin?
It deactivates white blood cells and is produced by the liver; its deficiency can lead to
chronic inflammation.
22) What are exogenous pyrogens?
Substances that trigger fever, such as viral infections and gram-negative bacterial
endotoxins.
23) What do antipyretics do?
They block the synthesis of prostaglandins in the CNS to reduce fever.
24) Define immunogens.
Large foreign molecules recognized by immune receptors that activate B- and T-cells.
25) What are haptens?
Small molecules that can become immunogenic when bound to larger molecules,
commonly found in allergens like peanuts and medications.
, 26) Describe T-Cells and their development.
T-Cells develop in the thymus and migrate to secondary lymph tissue, producing
cytokines, interleukins, and interferons.
27) What distinguishes B-Cells?
They mature in the bone marrow and produce antibodies without circulating in the
bloodstream initially.
28) What do MHC I and MHC II proteins do?
They are expressed on cell surfaces (except RBCs) and play a role in immune
responses; lack on RBCs facilitates transfusion compatibility.
29) Define endogenous antigens.
Non-self intracellular proteins arising from viral infections or genetic mutations.
30) What are exogenous antigens?
Non-self materials left after the phagocytic digestion of bacteria or other antigens.
31) List the classes of antibodies and their characteristics.
IgG (80% of circulating antibodies, placental transfer, long-lasting), IgA (10-12%, found
in secretions), IgM (largest, first response), IgD (B-cell receptor), IgE (allergic responses).
32) What is neutralization in immunology?
Coating antigens to prevent their circulation or adherence to mucous membranes,
effective against viruses and toxins.
33) Define autoimmunity.
An immune response against self-antigens that the body normally tolerates.
34) What is alloimmunity?
The immune response to antigens within another member of the same species, seen in
blood reactions and transplant rejections.
35) What are the 10 Hallmarks of Cancer?
1) Evading growth suppressors 2) Enabling replicative immortality 3) Tumor-promoting
inflammation 4) Activating invasion and metastasis 5) Genomic instability 6) Inducing
angiogenesis 7) Resisting cell death 8) Deregulating cellular energetics 9) Sustaining
proliferative signaling 10) Avoiding immune destruction.
36) Describe benign tumors.
Grow slowly, well-defined capsule, not invasive, well-differentiated, low mitotic index.
37) What characterizes malignant tumors?
Rapid growth, not encapsulated, invasive, poorly differentiated, high mitotic index,
capable of metastasis.
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
MIDTERM EXAM PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS 2025
[Document subtitle]
[DATE]
[COMPANY NAME]
[Company address]
,1) Receptors - What promotes inflammation, smooth muscle contraction, vasodilation,
edema, hives, and causes more wakefulness and alertness?
Histamine receptors.
2) What are leukotrienes?
Inflammatory mediators that stimulate contraction of smooth muscles in bronchioles
and cause inflammation in asthma and allergic rhinitis when overproduced.
3) What do H2 receptors do?
They have anti-inflammatory effects, suppress leukocyte function, decrease histamine
release, increase gastric acid production, and promote smooth muscle relaxation.
4) What are prostaglandins?
A group of lipids made at the site of tissue injury that control inflammation, blood clot
formation, and blood flow, and stimulate nerve endings to induce pain.
5) What characterizes allergy Type I IgE-Mediated Response?
Immediate response mediated by IgE, with principal cells being mast cells, and
examples include seasonal allergic rhinitis and hay fever.
6) What organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?
Mitochondria.
7) What is the role of the endoplasmic reticulum?
It forms a maze of passageways for transporting proteins and other materials within the
cell.
8) What do peroxisomes and lysosomes do?
They contain digestive enzymes that break down waste and foreign material.
9) Describe allergy Type II Tissue-Specific Response.
Immediate response mediated by IgG and IgM, with macrophages in tissues as principal
cells, targeting drug allergies and infections.
10) List the five ways Type II hypersensitivity can lead to cell destruction.
1) Destruction by antibody binding, 2) Phagocytosis by macrophages, 3) Damage
triggering neutrophils, 4) NK cells releasing toxic substances, 5) Malfunction without
destruction.
11) What is allergy Type III Immune Complex-Mediated Response?
An immediate response mediated by IgG and IgM involving neutrophils where
antibodies bind to antigens in body fluids, not organ-specific.
12) What characterizes allergy Type IV Cell-Mediated Response?
Delayed hypersensitivity reactions mediated by T-lymphocytes and macrophages,
without antibodies; example: localized contact dermatitis.
,13) Define innate immunity.
It includes physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers that are nonspecific, such as
intact skin and inflammatory responses.
14) What are Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)?
Receptors on the surface of white blood cells that identify self versus foreign material.
15) Define PAMP and DAMP.
PAMP: Pathogen-Associated Molecular Patterns; DAMP: Damage-Associated Molecular
Patterns.
16) What is phagocytosis?
The process involving the interaction of PAMP/DAMP with PRR that stimulates the
vascular response and WBC response to inflammation, involving recognition,
adherence, and destruction of pathogens.
17) What characterizes neutrophils?
They make up 70% of white blood cells and are the first to respond to invasion, capable
of killing 5-20 bacteria.
18) What is the role of monocytes?
They arrive within 24 hours of an invasion and become macrophages involved in the
inflammatory response.
19) What are eosinophils known as?
Cleanup cells that remove the last bits of debris.
20) Define phagocytes.
Cells that actively digest and kill pathogens, eventually becoming pus.
21) What is the function of Alpha-1 Antitrypsin?
It deactivates white blood cells and is produced by the liver; its deficiency can lead to
chronic inflammation.
22) What are exogenous pyrogens?
Substances that trigger fever, such as viral infections and gram-negative bacterial
endotoxins.
23) What do antipyretics do?
They block the synthesis of prostaglandins in the CNS to reduce fever.
24) Define immunogens.
Large foreign molecules recognized by immune receptors that activate B- and T-cells.
25) What are haptens?
Small molecules that can become immunogenic when bound to larger molecules,
commonly found in allergens like peanuts and medications.
, 26) Describe T-Cells and their development.
T-Cells develop in the thymus and migrate to secondary lymph tissue, producing
cytokines, interleukins, and interferons.
27) What distinguishes B-Cells?
They mature in the bone marrow and produce antibodies without circulating in the
bloodstream initially.
28) What do MHC I and MHC II proteins do?
They are expressed on cell surfaces (except RBCs) and play a role in immune
responses; lack on RBCs facilitates transfusion compatibility.
29) Define endogenous antigens.
Non-self intracellular proteins arising from viral infections or genetic mutations.
30) What are exogenous antigens?
Non-self materials left after the phagocytic digestion of bacteria or other antigens.
31) List the classes of antibodies and their characteristics.
IgG (80% of circulating antibodies, placental transfer, long-lasting), IgA (10-12%, found
in secretions), IgM (largest, first response), IgD (B-cell receptor), IgE (allergic responses).
32) What is neutralization in immunology?
Coating antigens to prevent their circulation or adherence to mucous membranes,
effective against viruses and toxins.
33) Define autoimmunity.
An immune response against self-antigens that the body normally tolerates.
34) What is alloimmunity?
The immune response to antigens within another member of the same species, seen in
blood reactions and transplant rejections.
35) What are the 10 Hallmarks of Cancer?
1) Evading growth suppressors 2) Enabling replicative immortality 3) Tumor-promoting
inflammation 4) Activating invasion and metastasis 5) Genomic instability 6) Inducing
angiogenesis 7) Resisting cell death 8) Deregulating cellular energetics 9) Sustaining
proliferative signaling 10) Avoiding immune destruction.
36) Describe benign tumors.
Grow slowly, well-defined capsule, not invasive, well-differentiated, low mitotic index.
37) What characterizes malignant tumors?
Rapid growth, not encapsulated, invasive, poorly differentiated, high mitotic index,
capable of metastasis.
