ANCC Exam Questions and Answers Latest
2025/2026 GRADED A
32-year-old patient who underwent an open splenectomy for a ruptured spleen, is
preparing for discharge. An adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioner reviews
the potential complications with the patient. The nurse practitioner emphasizes which
instruction to the patient?
Continue antibiotics for 14 days
Follow up with primary care provider for vaccinations
No international travel for five years
No weight lifting restrictions - CORRECT ANSWER-Follow up with primary care
provider for vaccinations
A 15-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports elevated blood glucose
levels in the morning. An adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioner determines
that the patient's hyperglycemia is due to the dawn phenomenon and:
A) increases the insulin dosage at bed time.
B) reduces the insulin dosage at bed time.
C) tests the blood glucose level at 3:00 AM every morning.
D) tests the blood glucose level in the evening. - CORRECT ANSWER-A) increases the
insulin dosage at bed time.
A 19-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department exhibiting symptoms
of lower abdominal pain that radiates to the groin, and that the patient rates as an 8 on
a scale of 1 to 10. That patient states that the pain came on suddenly, while he was
, playing football with friends. The patient's physical examination reveals positive bowel
sounds in all quadrants; a soft, non-tender abdomen; no rebounding and no guarding;
and no palpable mass in the abdomen or groin. Examination of the patient's genitalia
reveals a unilateral cremasteric reflex. What is the adult-gerontology acute care nurse
practitioner's leading differential diagnosis, based on the patient's presentation?
Appendicitis
Epididymitis
Inguinal hernia
Testicular torsion - CORRECT ANSWER-Testicular torsion
A 55-year-old man who has no history of diabetes mellitus, heart disease,
hypertension, or thrombotic events is diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation.
Based on national stroke prevention guidelines, the recommended antithrombotic
management for this patient is:
aspirin (Bayer).
aspirin with dipyridamole (Aggrenox).
clopidogrel (Plavix).
warfarin (Coumadin). - CORRECT ANSWER-aspirin (Bayer)
A 65-year-old female patient has a confirmed diagnosis of terminal liver disease. The
patient's advance directive designates comfort measures, only. An adult-gerontology
acute care nurse practitioner's action is to:
A) discuss the patient's decision with the patient's family members.
B) persuade the patient to participate in a hepatitis clinical trial.
C) reconfirm the patient's end-of-life decision.
D) refer the patient for a psychological evaluation. - CORRECT ANSWER-C) reconfirm
the patient's end-of-life decision.
2025/2026 GRADED A
32-year-old patient who underwent an open splenectomy for a ruptured spleen, is
preparing for discharge. An adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioner reviews
the potential complications with the patient. The nurse practitioner emphasizes which
instruction to the patient?
Continue antibiotics for 14 days
Follow up with primary care provider for vaccinations
No international travel for five years
No weight lifting restrictions - CORRECT ANSWER-Follow up with primary care
provider for vaccinations
A 15-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports elevated blood glucose
levels in the morning. An adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioner determines
that the patient's hyperglycemia is due to the dawn phenomenon and:
A) increases the insulin dosage at bed time.
B) reduces the insulin dosage at bed time.
C) tests the blood glucose level at 3:00 AM every morning.
D) tests the blood glucose level in the evening. - CORRECT ANSWER-A) increases the
insulin dosage at bed time.
A 19-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department exhibiting symptoms
of lower abdominal pain that radiates to the groin, and that the patient rates as an 8 on
a scale of 1 to 10. That patient states that the pain came on suddenly, while he was
, playing football with friends. The patient's physical examination reveals positive bowel
sounds in all quadrants; a soft, non-tender abdomen; no rebounding and no guarding;
and no palpable mass in the abdomen or groin. Examination of the patient's genitalia
reveals a unilateral cremasteric reflex. What is the adult-gerontology acute care nurse
practitioner's leading differential diagnosis, based on the patient's presentation?
Appendicitis
Epididymitis
Inguinal hernia
Testicular torsion - CORRECT ANSWER-Testicular torsion
A 55-year-old man who has no history of diabetes mellitus, heart disease,
hypertension, or thrombotic events is diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation.
Based on national stroke prevention guidelines, the recommended antithrombotic
management for this patient is:
aspirin (Bayer).
aspirin with dipyridamole (Aggrenox).
clopidogrel (Plavix).
warfarin (Coumadin). - CORRECT ANSWER-aspirin (Bayer)
A 65-year-old female patient has a confirmed diagnosis of terminal liver disease. The
patient's advance directive designates comfort measures, only. An adult-gerontology
acute care nurse practitioner's action is to:
A) discuss the patient's decision with the patient's family members.
B) persuade the patient to participate in a hepatitis clinical trial.
C) reconfirm the patient's end-of-life decision.
D) refer the patient for a psychological evaluation. - CORRECT ANSWER-C) reconfirm
the patient's end-of-life decision.
