E1 (questions with complete solution)
graded A+
The nurse, caring for a client receiving a parasympathomimetic drug, should
observe for increased symptoms of which of the following processes? - correct
answer ✔✔heart failure
The physician has ordered bethanechol (Urecholine) for the client with urinary
retention. The client also has an enlarged prostate gland. What is the priority
action by the nurse? - correct answer ✔✔hold the drug and contact the phsyicain
Diazepam (Valium) is ionized as it enters the stomach. Which statement is
accurate regarding the absorption of Valium in the stomach? - correct answer
✔✔absorption may be slow
*Remember that weak acids get ionized in acidic solution like the stomach with a
PH of 1. And weak base gets ionized in basic solution like the intestine with a PH
of 7. But in terms of absorption, weak acids are easily absorbed in the intestines
because of the greater surface area than the stomach for non-ionized form of a
drug (info from elsiviere)
A patient is being treated with chloramphenicol at a dose of 15 mg/kg every 6
hours. (Chloramphenicol is metabolized by the liver.) During the course of
treatment, the patient suffered concomitant (means at the same time) liver
damage. What should happen to this patient's dosing schedule? - correct answer
✔✔decrease the dosing schedule because there is risk for overdose
The client is receiving propranolol (Inderal). What will be the priority assessment
of the nurse? - correct answer ✔✔This is a sympathetic antagonist that blocks
, beta 1 and beta 2 receptors. The nurse should monitor blood pressure and heart
rate regularly, warn patients about orthostatic hypotension and tell patients to
avoid alcohol.
A client receiving a histamine antagonist asks the nurse how the drug works in his
body. The nurse explains: - correct answer ✔✔Prevent the action of H1 by
blocking the action of histamines in yours in the stomach."
The client is malnourished and has a low serum albumin. The physician has
ordered Dilantin, a highly protein-bound drug, for the client. Which evaluation by
the nurse best describes the efffect this will have on the client? - correct answer
✔✔The nurse should assess albumin level and blood serum level.
rationale: Dilantin (phenytoin) is an anti-epileptic drug, also called an
anticonvulsant. It works by slowing down impulses in the brain that cause
seizures.
Dilantin is used to control seizures.
Free drug will be produced to produce blood toxicity.
Liver damage can also cause toxicity.
Two combining drugs for the same recptor
When a drug has a bioavailability <100% following oral administration, this could
mean that the drug - correct answer ✔✔This could mean that the drug is not fully
metabolized or absorbed- because if the percentage of the drug that is being
absorbed is less than a 100 then that means that some of the drug was excreted
graded A+
The nurse, caring for a client receiving a parasympathomimetic drug, should
observe for increased symptoms of which of the following processes? - correct
answer ✔✔heart failure
The physician has ordered bethanechol (Urecholine) for the client with urinary
retention. The client also has an enlarged prostate gland. What is the priority
action by the nurse? - correct answer ✔✔hold the drug and contact the phsyicain
Diazepam (Valium) is ionized as it enters the stomach. Which statement is
accurate regarding the absorption of Valium in the stomach? - correct answer
✔✔absorption may be slow
*Remember that weak acids get ionized in acidic solution like the stomach with a
PH of 1. And weak base gets ionized in basic solution like the intestine with a PH
of 7. But in terms of absorption, weak acids are easily absorbed in the intestines
because of the greater surface area than the stomach for non-ionized form of a
drug (info from elsiviere)
A patient is being treated with chloramphenicol at a dose of 15 mg/kg every 6
hours. (Chloramphenicol is metabolized by the liver.) During the course of
treatment, the patient suffered concomitant (means at the same time) liver
damage. What should happen to this patient's dosing schedule? - correct answer
✔✔decrease the dosing schedule because there is risk for overdose
The client is receiving propranolol (Inderal). What will be the priority assessment
of the nurse? - correct answer ✔✔This is a sympathetic antagonist that blocks
, beta 1 and beta 2 receptors. The nurse should monitor blood pressure and heart
rate regularly, warn patients about orthostatic hypotension and tell patients to
avoid alcohol.
A client receiving a histamine antagonist asks the nurse how the drug works in his
body. The nurse explains: - correct answer ✔✔Prevent the action of H1 by
blocking the action of histamines in yours in the stomach."
The client is malnourished and has a low serum albumin. The physician has
ordered Dilantin, a highly protein-bound drug, for the client. Which evaluation by
the nurse best describes the efffect this will have on the client? - correct answer
✔✔The nurse should assess albumin level and blood serum level.
rationale: Dilantin (phenytoin) is an anti-epileptic drug, also called an
anticonvulsant. It works by slowing down impulses in the brain that cause
seizures.
Dilantin is used to control seizures.
Free drug will be produced to produce blood toxicity.
Liver damage can also cause toxicity.
Two combining drugs for the same recptor
When a drug has a bioavailability <100% following oral administration, this could
mean that the drug - correct answer ✔✔This could mean that the drug is not fully
metabolized or absorbed- because if the percentage of the drug that is being
absorbed is less than a 100 then that means that some of the drug was excreted
