TOP QUESTIONS & THOROUGH ANSWERS
Accreditation of a facility represents that the DSM services provided exemplify all of the following
except:
A. Proficiency
D. Productivity
C. Professionalism
D. Proper protocol D. Productivity
Which of the following is NOT part of AADSM standard protocol for long term OAT care:
A. Evaluation for dental side effects
B. Recording vitals
C. Assessment of subjective symptoms
D. Assessment with objective home sleep testing
D. Assessment with objective home sleep testing
Common dental side effects with long term use of an oral appliance include:
A. Change in occlusal contacts
B. Mesial tipping of maxillary and mandibular molars
C. Increase in overbite and overjet
D. Generalized tooth mobility
A. Change in occlusal contacts
Regarding long term compliance to OAT (5 years), Marklund found that:
A. Overbite decreases continually but overjet changes wane
B. 90% of patients showed compliance at 5 years
C. Overjet decreases continually but overbite changes wane
D. Only 15% of patients abandoned OAT
C. Overjet decreases continually but overbite changes wane
The relationship between mandibular advancement and the forces created by the MAD as described
by Cohen-Levy is:
A. Linearly related
B. Geometrically related
C. Inversely related
,D. Arithmetically related
A. Linearly related
Which of the following cephalometric predictors is most likely to correlate to MAS success:
A. High mandibular plane angle
B. Reduced distance to hyoid bone and mandibular inferior border
C. Longer soft palate
D. Shorter anterior face height
B. Reduced distance to hyoid bone and mandibular inferior border
(Retrognathic mandible)
The dental explanation for occlusal contact changes while wearing an oral appliance for SRBD includes
all of the following except:
A. Second molar tipping resulting in extrusion of the distal cusps causing an anterior open bite
B. Extrusion of the mandibular incisors
C. Palatal tipping of the maxillary incisors
D. Reduction in overjet due to labial tipping of the mandibular incisors
B. Extrusion of the mandibular incisors
Sleep architecture during the transition from infancy to preschool is characterized by which of the
following changes:
A. Increase in REM sleep
B. Decrease in NREM sleep
C. Increase in SWS (slow wave sleep)
D. Circadian rhythm desynchronization
C. Increase in SWS (slow wave sleep)
During adolescence, which of the following is likely to occur?
A. Circadian phase advancement
B. Increase in REM sleep
C. Reduction in sleep drive
D. Increase in slow wave sleep
A. Circadian phase advancement
Children will typically demonstrate which of the following:
A. Higher arousal thresholds during N3 sleep
B. Decreased proportion of N3 sleep as compared to an adult
,C. Lower arousal thresholds during REM sleep
D. Sleep spindle activity during N3
A. Higher arousal thresholds during N3 sleep
Primary enuresis in children:
A. Is pathognomonic of OSA
B. More common in girls than boys
C. Most episodes occur early in the sleep cycle
D. Incidence increases with age
C. Most episodes occur early in the sleep cycle
Different regions of the brain are affected by chronic sleep loss. Which region of the brain is most likely
to be affected by sleep loss resulting in risk taking by the adolescent?
A. Brainstem
B. Prefrontal cortex
C. Amygdala
D. Striatum
D. Striatum
The scammon curve can best be used to explain how:
A. Class II malocclusions are associated with OAT
B. The child's airway is anatomically at risk for OSA
C. The hyoid bone moves inferior during growth
D. The palatal shelves respond to RME
B. The child's airway is anatomically at risk for OSA
Adenotonsillary hypertrophy (AT) is most often associated with which growth pattern:
A. Bimaxillary protrusion
B. Mandibular prognathism
C. Increased anterior facial height
D. Skeletal brachycephalic
C. Increased anterior facial height
The BEARS screening tool:
A. Is a screening tool for sleep disordered breathing only useful for children under 5 years of age
B. Asks trigger questions about bedtime problems, ESS, awakenings, REM stage, and snoring
C. Is a screening tool for sleep disordered breathing for children ages 2-18
D. Divides children into 4 age categories
, C. Is a screening tool for sleep disordered breathing for children ages 2-18
In children, use of nocturnal oximetry is problematic because:
A. Children are more likely to desaturate relative to adults
B. Oximetry tends to overestimate AHI at low severity and underestimate AHI at high severity
C. Children show fewer movements in sleep than adults
D. There is excellent sensitivity but poor specificity
A. Children are more likely to desaturate relative to adults
B. Oximetry tends to overestimate AHI at low severity and
BOTH ARE CORRECT
Compared to adults, children with OSA have:
A. Better preservation of sleep architecture
B. More obstructive apneas
C. More cortical arousals
D. More insomnia complaints
A. Better preservation of sleep architecture
A predictor of poor outcomes of adenotonsillectomy procedures for children with OSAS is:
A. Early treatment
B. Mallampati scores of I or II
C. Low pretreatment AHI
D. High arched palate
D. High arched palate
The "Flip-Flop Switch" metaphor of sleep describes:
A. The balance between slow wave sleep and REM stage sleep
B. A long, slow progressions from wakefulness to NREM stage 1 sleep
C. Mutual inhibition between wake promoting neurons and sleep promoting neurons D. The abrupt
suppression of actigraphy activity at the onset of REM sleep
E. A and C
E. A and C
Which statement is true regarding Melatonin:
A. Melatonin is necessary for sleep
B. Melatonin is released from the Pineal Gland
C. Increased release of Melatonin at end of day is primary factor in sleep drive
D. Caffeine is a non-specific melatonin blocker