1. A patient presents with pain, photophobia, redness, and decreased
vision in one eye. Slit-lamp examination shows a dendritic ulcer. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fungal Keratitis
B. Bacterial Keratitis
C. Herpes Simplex Keratitis
D. Corneal Abrasion
Answer: C) Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Rationale: Dendritic ulcers are pathognomonic for herpes simplex
keratitis, often requiring antiviral therapy.
2. What is the most common intraocular tumor in adults?
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Choroidal Melanoma
C. Metastatic Carcinoma
D. Primary Vitreoretinal Lymphoma
Answer: B) Choroidal Melanoma
Rationale: Choroidal melanoma is the most common primary
intraocular malignancy in adults, requiring prompt diagnosis and
treatment.
,3. What is the primary function of aqueous humor?
A. Provide nutrients to the cornea and lens
B. Maintain intraocular pressure
C. Refract light entering the eye
D. Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
Rationale: Aqueous humor supplies nutrients to avascular structures
like the lens and cornea and helps maintain intraocular pressure.
4. What is the most common pathogen in post-operative
endophthalmitis?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Candida albicans
D. Escherichia coli
Answer: A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
Rationale: Staphylococcus epidermidis, part of the normal skin flora, is
the most common cause of post-operative endophthalmitis.
5. What is the preferred treatment for wet age-related macular
degeneration?
A. Anti-VEGF Injections
B. Laser Photocoagulation
, C. Corticosteroid Injections
D. Vitrectomy
Answer: A) Anti-VEGF Injections
Rationale: Anti-VEGF therapy reduces abnormal blood vessel growth
and leakage, improving vision in wet AMD.
6. A 45-year-old patient presents with a gradual loss of peripheral
vision. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Retinitis Pigmentosa
B. Glaucoma
C. Optic Neuritis
D. Diabetic Retinopathy
Answer: B) Glaucoma
Rationale: Glaucoma commonly causes gradual peripheral vision loss
due to damage to the optic nerve.
7. A 60-year-old presents with painless loss of vision. Fundoscopy
reveals a pale retina with a "cherry-red" spot. What is the diagnosis?
A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
C. Age-Related Macular Degeneration
D. Retinal Detachment
Answer: A) Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
vision in one eye. Slit-lamp examination shows a dendritic ulcer. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fungal Keratitis
B. Bacterial Keratitis
C. Herpes Simplex Keratitis
D. Corneal Abrasion
Answer: C) Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Rationale: Dendritic ulcers are pathognomonic for herpes simplex
keratitis, often requiring antiviral therapy.
2. What is the most common intraocular tumor in adults?
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Choroidal Melanoma
C. Metastatic Carcinoma
D. Primary Vitreoretinal Lymphoma
Answer: B) Choroidal Melanoma
Rationale: Choroidal melanoma is the most common primary
intraocular malignancy in adults, requiring prompt diagnosis and
treatment.
,3. What is the primary function of aqueous humor?
A. Provide nutrients to the cornea and lens
B. Maintain intraocular pressure
C. Refract light entering the eye
D. Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
Rationale: Aqueous humor supplies nutrients to avascular structures
like the lens and cornea and helps maintain intraocular pressure.
4. What is the most common pathogen in post-operative
endophthalmitis?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Candida albicans
D. Escherichia coli
Answer: A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
Rationale: Staphylococcus epidermidis, part of the normal skin flora, is
the most common cause of post-operative endophthalmitis.
5. What is the preferred treatment for wet age-related macular
degeneration?
A. Anti-VEGF Injections
B. Laser Photocoagulation
, C. Corticosteroid Injections
D. Vitrectomy
Answer: A) Anti-VEGF Injections
Rationale: Anti-VEGF therapy reduces abnormal blood vessel growth
and leakage, improving vision in wet AMD.
6. A 45-year-old patient presents with a gradual loss of peripheral
vision. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Retinitis Pigmentosa
B. Glaucoma
C. Optic Neuritis
D. Diabetic Retinopathy
Answer: B) Glaucoma
Rationale: Glaucoma commonly causes gradual peripheral vision loss
due to damage to the optic nerve.
7. A 60-year-old presents with painless loss of vision. Fundoscopy
reveals a pale retina with a "cherry-red" spot. What is the diagnosis?
A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
C. Age-Related Macular Degeneration
D. Retinal Detachment
Answer: A) Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
