1. A 22-year-old female presents with excessive eating followed by
vomiting at least twice a week. She is at a normal weight but expresses
intense fear of gaining weight. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Bulimia nervosa
C. Binge eating disorder
D. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder
Answer: b) Bulimia nervosa
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent episodes of
binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors, such as vomiting.
Individuals with bulimia nervosa typically have normal or near-normal
body weight and may fear gaining weight despite the compensatory
behaviors.
2. A patient with depression and suicidal ideation refuses to take
medications but agrees to therapy. Which type of therapy is most
commonly used for treating depression?
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
B. Psychoanalysis
C. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
D. Interpersonal therapy (IPT)
Answer: a) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
,Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is an evidence-based
treatment for depression that focuses on identifying and modifying
negative thought patterns and behaviors. It is widely used for treating
mild to moderate depression.
3. A 28-year-old male with schizophrenia has a persistent tremor
despite being on antipsychotic medication. What is the most likely
cause of this tremor?
A. Parkinsonism
B. Akathisia
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: a) Parkinsonism
Rationale: Parkinsonism is a common side effect of antipsychotic
medications, particularly first-generation antipsychotics. Symptoms
include tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia, which mimic Parkinson's
disease.
4. Which of the following is the most effective treatment for acute
mania in bipolar disorder?
A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Lamotrigine
D. Carbamazepine
, Answer: b) Valproate
Rationale: Valproate is considered one of the most effective medications
for managing acute mania in bipolar disorder. It is a mood stabilizer
and has a faster onset of action compared to lithium.
5. A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent mood
swings, irritability, and depressive episodes, along with periods of
elevated mood and energy. Which diagnosis is most consistent with her
symptoms?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Bipolar II disorder
C. Cyclothymic disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder
Answer: b) Bipolar II disorder
Rationale: Bipolar II disorder is characterized by episodes of depression
and hypomania (elevated mood), but the manic episodes are not as
severe as in bipolar I disorder. The presence of both depressive and
hypomanic episodes is diagnostic.
6. A 30-year-old female presents with persistent sadness and loss of
interest in activities she once enjoyed. She also reports feelings of
worthlessness and difficulty concentrating. Which of the following is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
vomiting at least twice a week. She is at a normal weight but expresses
intense fear of gaining weight. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Bulimia nervosa
C. Binge eating disorder
D. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder
Answer: b) Bulimia nervosa
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent episodes of
binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors, such as vomiting.
Individuals with bulimia nervosa typically have normal or near-normal
body weight and may fear gaining weight despite the compensatory
behaviors.
2. A patient with depression and suicidal ideation refuses to take
medications but agrees to therapy. Which type of therapy is most
commonly used for treating depression?
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
B. Psychoanalysis
C. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
D. Interpersonal therapy (IPT)
Answer: a) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
,Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is an evidence-based
treatment for depression that focuses on identifying and modifying
negative thought patterns and behaviors. It is widely used for treating
mild to moderate depression.
3. A 28-year-old male with schizophrenia has a persistent tremor
despite being on antipsychotic medication. What is the most likely
cause of this tremor?
A. Parkinsonism
B. Akathisia
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: a) Parkinsonism
Rationale: Parkinsonism is a common side effect of antipsychotic
medications, particularly first-generation antipsychotics. Symptoms
include tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia, which mimic Parkinson's
disease.
4. Which of the following is the most effective treatment for acute
mania in bipolar disorder?
A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Lamotrigine
D. Carbamazepine
, Answer: b) Valproate
Rationale: Valproate is considered one of the most effective medications
for managing acute mania in bipolar disorder. It is a mood stabilizer
and has a faster onset of action compared to lithium.
5. A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent mood
swings, irritability, and depressive episodes, along with periods of
elevated mood and energy. Which diagnosis is most consistent with her
symptoms?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Bipolar II disorder
C. Cyclothymic disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder
Answer: b) Bipolar II disorder
Rationale: Bipolar II disorder is characterized by episodes of depression
and hypomania (elevated mood), but the manic episodes are not as
severe as in bipolar I disorder. The presence of both depressive and
hypomanic episodes is diagnostic.
6. A 30-year-old female presents with persistent sadness and loss of
interest in activities she once enjoyed. She also reports feelings of
worthlessness and difficulty concentrating. Which of the following is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
