Family Medicine PAEA- OBGYN Questions and
Answers| Latest Update
A 25 year-old presents with pelvic pain and uterine bleeding. Her Beta-HCG was 1200 mIU/L
six days ago. Her current Beta-HCG is 1600 mIU/L. What is the next best test in the evaluation
of this patient?
Laparoscopy
Culdocentesis
Dilation and curettage
Transvaginal ultrasound (Transvaginal ultrasound is the best test to separate ectopic from
intrauterine pregnancy)
When starting a patient on oral contraceptives, she should be advised to use an additional form of
contraception for how long in order to prevent inadvertent pregnancy?
1 week
2 weeks
3 weeks
4 weeks 4
Which of the following is the best test to confirm the presence of gonorrhea in a female?
culture of the endocervix
culture of vaginal discharge
,Gram stain of cervical discharge
Presence of yellow discharge the standard for diagnosis of gonorrhea is the isolation of the
organsm by culture from the endocervix in women)
`
Which of the following laboratory markers are helpful in establishing the diagnosis of ovarian
cancer in a 55 year-old post-menopausal women?
Ca-125
CEA
LDH
AFP (Ca-125 is one of the best tumor markers in epithelial ovarian cancer)
Colposcopic examination of the cervix of a 38 year-old woman with a high-grade lesion on
Papanicolaou (Pap) smear yields a positive endocervical canal curettage (ECC) as its only
abnormality. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient?
Repeat the Pap smear in 3 months
Perform a conization of the cervix
Repeat the colposcopic examination in 3 months
No follow-up is required ( A conization of the cervix is recommended in this case because
there is a substantial discrepancy between the screening Pap test and the histologic data from
biopsy and ECC. Additionally the ECC is positive for disease in this case)
, A 26 year-old monogamous female presents with cyclic pelvic pain that has been increasing over
the last 6 months. She complains of significant dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia. She uses
condoms for birth control. On physical examination her uterus is retroverted and non-mobile,
and she has a palpable adnexal mass on the left side. Her serum pregnancy test is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Ovarian cancer
Endometriosis
Functional ovarian cyst
Pelvic inflammatory disease (With endometriosis, the uterus is often fixed and retroflexed
in the pelvis. The palpable mass is an endometrioma or "chocolate cyst". The patient with
endometriosis also often has dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and dyschezia)
A woman who is late in her last trimester presents in the emergency department with bright, red
vaginal bleeding with no abdominal pain. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The most likely
diagnosis is
spontaneous abortion
placenta previa
hydatidiform mole
abruptio placentae (Placenta previa presents sudden painless, profuse bleeding in the third
trimester)
In which of the following maternal-fetal blood type pairings should the mother receive Rho-
GAM?
Answers| Latest Update
A 25 year-old presents with pelvic pain and uterine bleeding. Her Beta-HCG was 1200 mIU/L
six days ago. Her current Beta-HCG is 1600 mIU/L. What is the next best test in the evaluation
of this patient?
Laparoscopy
Culdocentesis
Dilation and curettage
Transvaginal ultrasound (Transvaginal ultrasound is the best test to separate ectopic from
intrauterine pregnancy)
When starting a patient on oral contraceptives, she should be advised to use an additional form of
contraception for how long in order to prevent inadvertent pregnancy?
1 week
2 weeks
3 weeks
4 weeks 4
Which of the following is the best test to confirm the presence of gonorrhea in a female?
culture of the endocervix
culture of vaginal discharge
,Gram stain of cervical discharge
Presence of yellow discharge the standard for diagnosis of gonorrhea is the isolation of the
organsm by culture from the endocervix in women)
`
Which of the following laboratory markers are helpful in establishing the diagnosis of ovarian
cancer in a 55 year-old post-menopausal women?
Ca-125
CEA
LDH
AFP (Ca-125 is one of the best tumor markers in epithelial ovarian cancer)
Colposcopic examination of the cervix of a 38 year-old woman with a high-grade lesion on
Papanicolaou (Pap) smear yields a positive endocervical canal curettage (ECC) as its only
abnormality. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient?
Repeat the Pap smear in 3 months
Perform a conization of the cervix
Repeat the colposcopic examination in 3 months
No follow-up is required ( A conization of the cervix is recommended in this case because
there is a substantial discrepancy between the screening Pap test and the histologic data from
biopsy and ECC. Additionally the ECC is positive for disease in this case)
, A 26 year-old monogamous female presents with cyclic pelvic pain that has been increasing over
the last 6 months. She complains of significant dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia. She uses
condoms for birth control. On physical examination her uterus is retroverted and non-mobile,
and she has a palpable adnexal mass on the left side. Her serum pregnancy test is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Ovarian cancer
Endometriosis
Functional ovarian cyst
Pelvic inflammatory disease (With endometriosis, the uterus is often fixed and retroflexed
in the pelvis. The palpable mass is an endometrioma or "chocolate cyst". The patient with
endometriosis also often has dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and dyschezia)
A woman who is late in her last trimester presents in the emergency department with bright, red
vaginal bleeding with no abdominal pain. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The most likely
diagnosis is
spontaneous abortion
placenta previa
hydatidiform mole
abruptio placentae (Placenta previa presents sudden painless, profuse bleeding in the third
trimester)
In which of the following maternal-fetal blood type pairings should the mother receive Rho-
GAM?
