ASCP CERTIFICATION FINAL EXAM
2024| BRAND NEW VERSION WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A
Which method remains the "gold standard" for ANA detection?
a. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
b. Lateral Flow Immunoassay
c. Enzyme Immunoassay (ELISA)
d. Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme CORRECT ANSWER: D.
Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme
Platelets should be stored at what temperature:
Select one:
a. 1-6 degrees Celsius
b. 10-16 degrees Celsius
c. 20-24 degrees Celsius
d. 34-37 degrees Celsius CORRECT ANSWER: C. 20-24 degrees Celsius
If an antinuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescence test shows a positive, speckled
pattern, which would be the MOST appropriate additional test to perform?
Select one:
a. Anti-mitochondrial antibody
b. Immunoglobulin quantitation
c. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies
d. Anti-DNA antibody using C. luciliae CORRECT ANSWER: C. Screen for Sm and
RNP antibodies
A delayed hemolytic reaction occurring a week later is MOST likely caused by:
Select one:
a. Volume overload
b. Kidd system antibodies
c. Iron overload
d. ABO incompatibility CORRECT ANSWER: B. Kidd system antibodies
It's a busy Friday evening in the blood bank and you have been receiving a steady stream
of Type & Screen specimens from the emergency room and several of them have positive
antibody screens which require further workup. One of these patients is a 46-year-old
male whose hemoglobin has dropped from 8.4 g/dL to 4.6 g/dL in the previous 8 hours
(normal Hgb for this patient demographic would be 14 g/dL).Your workup reveals a
Type O patient with the following antibodies:Anti - K , anti Fya. The prevalence of K
negative donors in your donor population is 91% while the prevalence of Fya negative
,donors is 37%. Two units of crossmatched RBCs are requested by the physician. How
many units of group O RBC units should you phenotype, in order to fulfill the request
for two cross matched units?
Select one:
a. 2 units of type O RBC units
b. 3 units of type O RBC units
c. 6 units of type O RBC units
d. 12 units of type O RBC unit CORRECT ANSWER: C. 6 units of Type O RBC units
Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to serological
testing:
Select one:
a. Presence of an antibody titer is generally diagnostic
b. Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic
c. Concentration of antibody is diagnostic
d. Cross reactivity is not significant CORRECT ANSWER: B. Rise of antibody titers is
diagnostic
When performing an antibody panel, which one of the following antigens will be
rendered inactive by enzyme treatment?
Select one:
a. Fya
b. Jka
c. E
d. Lua CORRECT ANSWER: A. Fya
True or False: When antigen typing, mixed-field agglutination (MFA) due to red cell
transfusion indicates RECENT transfusion, specifically transfusion within the past three
months. CORRECT ANSWER: True
Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to hepatitis B:
Select one:
a. Core antigen
b. Surface antigen
c. e antigen
d. Delta antigen CORRECT ANSWER: B. Surface antigen
Antibodies in the Rh system typically exhibit which one of the following characteristics?
Select one:
a. Reacts best at 37 ˚C and AHG
b. Reacts best at room temperature
c. Shows hemolysis better than agglutination CORRECT ANSWER: A. Reacts best at
37 ˚C and AHG
A decrease in which of the following in AIDS patients results in increased susceptibility
to infection:
Select one:
, a. CD 4+ cells
b. CD 8+ cells
c. HIV antibodies
d. HIV antigens CORRECT ANSWER: A. CD 4+ cells
The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection during
gestation is the:
Select one:
a. first trimester
b. second trimester
c. third trimester
d. delivery
e. eighth month CORRECT ANSWER: A. First trimester
Given the following results, what is the immune status of the patient?HBsAg:
negativeHBeAg: negativeAnti-HBc: positiveAnti-HBs: positive
Select one:
a. acute infection
b. chronic infection
c. recovery
d. immunization CORRECT ANSWER: C. Recovery
Which of the following is the "activation unit" in the classical complement pathway?
Select one:
a. C1
b. C2
c. C4, C2, C3
d. C5, C6, C7, C8, C9
e. C1, C2, C9 CORRECT ANSWER: C4,C2,C,3
The Hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during Orientation.
Which type of immunity is expected and provide long-term protection?
Select one:
a. Active
b. Passive
c. Adoptive
d. Innate CORRECT ANSWER: A. Active
HIV is known as a retrovirus because:
Select one:
a. It can only attach to reticulocytes
b. RNA is used as the template for DNA synthesis
c. DNA is used as the template for RNA synthesis
d. It can cause AIDS immediately upon entering the body. CORRECT ANSWER: B.
RNA is used as the template for DNA synthesis
2024| BRAND NEW VERSION WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A
Which method remains the "gold standard" for ANA detection?
a. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
b. Lateral Flow Immunoassay
c. Enzyme Immunoassay (ELISA)
d. Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme CORRECT ANSWER: D.
Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme
Platelets should be stored at what temperature:
Select one:
a. 1-6 degrees Celsius
b. 10-16 degrees Celsius
c. 20-24 degrees Celsius
d. 34-37 degrees Celsius CORRECT ANSWER: C. 20-24 degrees Celsius
If an antinuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescence test shows a positive, speckled
pattern, which would be the MOST appropriate additional test to perform?
Select one:
a. Anti-mitochondrial antibody
b. Immunoglobulin quantitation
c. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies
d. Anti-DNA antibody using C. luciliae CORRECT ANSWER: C. Screen for Sm and
RNP antibodies
A delayed hemolytic reaction occurring a week later is MOST likely caused by:
Select one:
a. Volume overload
b. Kidd system antibodies
c. Iron overload
d. ABO incompatibility CORRECT ANSWER: B. Kidd system antibodies
It's a busy Friday evening in the blood bank and you have been receiving a steady stream
of Type & Screen specimens from the emergency room and several of them have positive
antibody screens which require further workup. One of these patients is a 46-year-old
male whose hemoglobin has dropped from 8.4 g/dL to 4.6 g/dL in the previous 8 hours
(normal Hgb for this patient demographic would be 14 g/dL).Your workup reveals a
Type O patient with the following antibodies:Anti - K , anti Fya. The prevalence of K
negative donors in your donor population is 91% while the prevalence of Fya negative
,donors is 37%. Two units of crossmatched RBCs are requested by the physician. How
many units of group O RBC units should you phenotype, in order to fulfill the request
for two cross matched units?
Select one:
a. 2 units of type O RBC units
b. 3 units of type O RBC units
c. 6 units of type O RBC units
d. 12 units of type O RBC unit CORRECT ANSWER: C. 6 units of Type O RBC units
Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to serological
testing:
Select one:
a. Presence of an antibody titer is generally diagnostic
b. Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic
c. Concentration of antibody is diagnostic
d. Cross reactivity is not significant CORRECT ANSWER: B. Rise of antibody titers is
diagnostic
When performing an antibody panel, which one of the following antigens will be
rendered inactive by enzyme treatment?
Select one:
a. Fya
b. Jka
c. E
d. Lua CORRECT ANSWER: A. Fya
True or False: When antigen typing, mixed-field agglutination (MFA) due to red cell
transfusion indicates RECENT transfusion, specifically transfusion within the past three
months. CORRECT ANSWER: True
Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to hepatitis B:
Select one:
a. Core antigen
b. Surface antigen
c. e antigen
d. Delta antigen CORRECT ANSWER: B. Surface antigen
Antibodies in the Rh system typically exhibit which one of the following characteristics?
Select one:
a. Reacts best at 37 ˚C and AHG
b. Reacts best at room temperature
c. Shows hemolysis better than agglutination CORRECT ANSWER: A. Reacts best at
37 ˚C and AHG
A decrease in which of the following in AIDS patients results in increased susceptibility
to infection:
Select one:
, a. CD 4+ cells
b. CD 8+ cells
c. HIV antibodies
d. HIV antigens CORRECT ANSWER: A. CD 4+ cells
The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection during
gestation is the:
Select one:
a. first trimester
b. second trimester
c. third trimester
d. delivery
e. eighth month CORRECT ANSWER: A. First trimester
Given the following results, what is the immune status of the patient?HBsAg:
negativeHBeAg: negativeAnti-HBc: positiveAnti-HBs: positive
Select one:
a. acute infection
b. chronic infection
c. recovery
d. immunization CORRECT ANSWER: C. Recovery
Which of the following is the "activation unit" in the classical complement pathway?
Select one:
a. C1
b. C2
c. C4, C2, C3
d. C5, C6, C7, C8, C9
e. C1, C2, C9 CORRECT ANSWER: C4,C2,C,3
The Hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during Orientation.
Which type of immunity is expected and provide long-term protection?
Select one:
a. Active
b. Passive
c. Adoptive
d. Innate CORRECT ANSWER: A. Active
HIV is known as a retrovirus because:
Select one:
a. It can only attach to reticulocytes
b. RNA is used as the template for DNA synthesis
c. DNA is used as the template for RNA synthesis
d. It can cause AIDS immediately upon entering the body. CORRECT ANSWER: B.
RNA is used as the template for DNA synthesis
