Pharmacology Practice Quiz UPDATED
Exam Questions and CORRECT Answers
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal
attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved?
A) Client states chest pain is relieved.
B) Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.
C) Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90.
D) Client's SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96%. - CORRECT ANSWER - Client states
chest pain is relieved.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and
reduces chest pain (A). (B and D) would also occur if the angina was relieved, but are not as
significant as the client's subjective report of decreased pain. (C) may indicate a reduction in
pain, or a potentially serious side effect of the medication.
Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with a
prescription for warfarin Coumadin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the
client to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?
A) Perfusion scan.
B) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
C) Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
D) Serum Coumadin level (SCL). - CORRECT ANSWER - Prothrombin Time (PT/INR)
Rationale: When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for warfarin
therapy is a PT 1½ to 2½ times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3 (B). A perfusion
might be performed to monitor lung function, but not monthly (A). APTT is monitored for the
client receiving heparin therapy (C). A blood level for Coumadin cannot be measured (D).
,A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate Keflex for a client with a postoperative
infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before
administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides. - CORRECT ANSWER - Penicillin
Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before
administering this drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial
infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - CORRECT ANSWER - Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases
contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta adrenergic blocker that
decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases
myocardial oxygen consumption and preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitor that acts to prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and
afterload.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
,B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - CORRECT ANSWER - Every 12 hours
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to
severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain
management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or
as needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of
every 4 to 6 hours (D) may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the
optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the next
antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - CORRECT ANSWER -
Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just
before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time for obtaining a
trough level of an antibiotic.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin LMWH.
During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this
medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. - CORRECT
ANSWER - This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation
, Rationale: Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant
that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically
to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein
thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents
clot extension or further clot formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection
(B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which observation by
the nurse should indicate that the desired outcome of the medication is being achieved?
A) Decreased blood pressure.
B) Lessening of tremors.
C) Increased salivation.
D) Increased attention span. - CORRECT ANSWER - Lessening of tremors
Rationale: Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS (dopamine to the brain).
Increased amounts of dopamine improve the symptoms of Parkinson's, such as involuntary
movements, resting tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a side effect of Sinemet. Decreased
drooling would be a desired effect, not (C). Sinemet does not affect (D).
A client is receiving metoprolol Lopressor SR. What assessment is most important for the nurse
to obtain?
A) Temperature.
B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. - CORRECT ANSWER - Blood pressure
Rationale: It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this medication
because Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive agent. While (A and B) are
important data to obtain on any client, they are not as important for a client receiving Lopressor
as (C). Intake and output ratios and daily weights should be monitored while taking Lopressor to
Exam Questions and CORRECT Answers
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal
attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved?
A) Client states chest pain is relieved.
B) Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.
C) Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90.
D) Client's SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96%. - CORRECT ANSWER - Client states
chest pain is relieved.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and
reduces chest pain (A). (B and D) would also occur if the angina was relieved, but are not as
significant as the client's subjective report of decreased pain. (C) may indicate a reduction in
pain, or a potentially serious side effect of the medication.
Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with a
prescription for warfarin Coumadin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the
client to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?
A) Perfusion scan.
B) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
C) Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
D) Serum Coumadin level (SCL). - CORRECT ANSWER - Prothrombin Time (PT/INR)
Rationale: When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for warfarin
therapy is a PT 1½ to 2½ times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3 (B). A perfusion
might be performed to monitor lung function, but not monthly (A). APTT is monitored for the
client receiving heparin therapy (C). A blood level for Coumadin cannot be measured (D).
,A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate Keflex for a client with a postoperative
infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before
administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides. - CORRECT ANSWER - Penicillin
Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before
administering this drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial
infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - CORRECT ANSWER - Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases
contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta adrenergic blocker that
decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases
myocardial oxygen consumption and preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitor that acts to prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and
afterload.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
,B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - CORRECT ANSWER - Every 12 hours
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to
severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain
management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or
as needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of
every 4 to 6 hours (D) may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the
optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the next
antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - CORRECT ANSWER -
Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just
before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time for obtaining a
trough level of an antibiotic.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin LMWH.
During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this
medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. - CORRECT
ANSWER - This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation
, Rationale: Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant
that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically
to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein
thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents
clot extension or further clot formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection
(B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which observation by
the nurse should indicate that the desired outcome of the medication is being achieved?
A) Decreased blood pressure.
B) Lessening of tremors.
C) Increased salivation.
D) Increased attention span. - CORRECT ANSWER - Lessening of tremors
Rationale: Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS (dopamine to the brain).
Increased amounts of dopamine improve the symptoms of Parkinson's, such as involuntary
movements, resting tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a side effect of Sinemet. Decreased
drooling would be a desired effect, not (C). Sinemet does not affect (D).
A client is receiving metoprolol Lopressor SR. What assessment is most important for the nurse
to obtain?
A) Temperature.
B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. - CORRECT ANSWER - Blood pressure
Rationale: It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this medication
because Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive agent. While (A and B) are
important data to obtain on any client, they are not as important for a client receiving Lopressor
as (C). Intake and output ratios and daily weights should be monitored while taking Lopressor to
