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Inflammatory and Immune Responses in Chronic and Acute Diseases questions & 100% verified answers

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Aspiration pneumonitis - ANSWER a condition caused by the abnormal entry of fluids, particulate matter, or secretions into the lower airways that can lead to chemical pneumonitis from entry of toxic material such as gastric acid, from bacterial infection, or by mechanical obstruction of the lower airways. Asthma - ANSWER a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways involving bronchial hyperresponsiveness and airway obstruction marked by periodic attacks of wheezing, shortness of breath, a tight feeling in the chest, and a cough that produces mucus because of an allergic reaction triggered by certain drugs, irritants, viral infection, exercise, or emotional stress. Asymptomatic bacteriuria - ANSWER the presence of bacteria in the urine without evidence of infection. Ataxia-telangiectasia (AT) - ANSWER see Immune deficiency. Ataxic cerebral palsy - ANSWER a form of cerebral palsy associated with damage to the cerebellum and resulting in gait disturbances and instability; at birth the infant may have hypotonia, but develops stiffness of the trunk muscles later in infancy. Atelectasis - ANSWER part of or an entire lung collapses and the alveoli deflate as a result of surgery, smoking, or blockage of a bronchiole. Absorption atelectasis - ANSWER collapse of lung tissue resulting from gradual absorption of air from obstructed or hypoventilated alveoli or from inhalation of concentrated oxygen or anesthetic agents. Compression atelectasis - ANSWER air pressure in the pleural space pushes against the already recoiled lung, causing compression atelectasis, and against the mediastinum, compressing and displacing the heart and great vessels. Surfactant impairment - ANSWER decreased production or inactivation of surfactant, which is necessary to reduce surface tension in the alveoli and causes lung collapse during expiration; can occur because of premature birth, acute respiratory distress syndrome, anesthesia, or mechanical ventilation. Atherosclerosis - ANSWER a type of arteriosclerosis in which the inflammatory changes of thickening and hardening of the walls of large- and medium-sized arteries are caused by an atheroma or plaque of lipids, cells, and connective tissue in the tunica intima. Atopic dermatitis (AD) (allergic dermatitis) - ANSWER a chronic hereditary skin disease characterized by intense itching and inflamed skin that causes redness, swelling, cracking, crusting, and scaling. Atrial septal defect (ASD) - ANSWER a congenital heart disease involving the interatrial septum of the heart that separates the right and left atria, which results in misdirected blood flow between the two sides of the heart. Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect - ANSWER a large hole is present in the center of the heart where the wall between the atria joins the wall between the ventricles, and the tricuspid and mitral valves are formed into a single large valve that crosses the defect. Atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH) - ANSWER abnormal proliferating cells in breast ducts. Atypical hyperplasia - ANSWER increased number of cells with some variation in cellular structure but without sufficient qualitative or quantitative features of carcinoma. Atypical lobular hyperplasia (ALH) - ANSWER abnormal proliferating cells in breast lobules. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) - ANSWER see Anemia. Autoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia - ANSWER see Thrombocytopenia. Autoimmune vascular purpura (allergic purpura) - ANSWER purpura caused by antibody-mediated injury of blood vessel walls, typically arterioles and capillaries. The reaction is directed to foreign proteins or chemicals in the blood (microorganisms, drugs, or other chemicals) that deposit on the vessel walls. Autonomic hyperreflexia (dysreflexia) - ANSWER a syndrome resulting from afferent stimuli that cause intense sympathetic discharge originating with spinal cord injury above the major splanchnic outflow; characterized by hypertension, bradycardia, sweating of the forehead, severe headache, and piloerection on distention of the bladder and rectum. Autosomal agammaglobulinemia - ANSWER see Immune deficiency. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) - ANSWER a progressive disease characterized by formation of multiple cysts of varying size scattered diffusely throughout both kidneys, resulting in compression and destruction of renal parenchyma, usually with hypertension, gross hematuria, and uremia leading to progressive renal failure. Autosomal hyper-IgM syndrome - ANSWER see Immune deficiency. Azotemia - ANSWER kidney dysfunction characterized by increased serum urea levels and frequently associated with increased creatinine levels. Bacterial pneumonia - ANSWER an acute or chronic disease marked by inflammation of the lungs caused by bacterial infection. Bacterial tracheitis - ANSWER a condition in which the larynx, trachea, and bronchi are inflamed and present with signs similar to those of epiglottitis and croup; may result in airway obstruction secondary to subglottic edema or sloughing of the epithelial lining or the mucopurulent membrane within the trachea. When cellular damage occurs and regeneration is minor with no significant complications, what is the process of returning the cells to preinjury function referred to as? a. Restoration b. Resolution c. Regrowth d. Replacement - ANSWER B If damage is minor with no complications and destroyed tissues are capable of regeneration, then returning the injured tissues to an approximation of their original structure and physiologic function is possible. This restoration is called resolution. Resolution is the restoration of the original tissue structure and function. Regrowth and replacement are not part of resolution. How does the B-cell receptor (BCR) complex function? a. Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T cell b. Secreting chemical signals to communicate between cells c. Releasing histamine and other vasoactive substances d. Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus - ANSWER D. The role of the BCR is to recognize the antigen; however, unlike circulating antibodies, the receptor must communicate that information to the cell's nucleus. The BCR does not communicate information about the antigen to the helper T cell or secrete chemical signals to communicate between cells. The release of histamine and other vasoactive substances is part of inflammation, not adaptive immunity. When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, how are the blood cells destroyed? a. Complement-mediated cell lysis b. Phagocytosis by macrophages c. Phagocytosis in the spleen d. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products - ANSWER C Antibodies against platelet-specific antigens or against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system coat those cells at low density, resulting in their preferential removal by phagocytosis in the spleen, rather than by complement-mediated lysis. These blood cells are not destroyed by complement-mediated cell lysis, phagocytosis by macrophages, neutrophil granules, or toxic oxygen products When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, what is tissue damage a result of? a. Complement-mediated cell lysis b. Phagocytosis by macrophages c. Phagocytosis in the spleen d. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products - ANSWER D. Of the options available, only the components of neutrophil granules as well as the several toxic oxygen products produced by these cells, damage the tissue. Graves disease (hyperthyroidism) is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction? a. Modulation b. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity c. Neutrophil-mediated damage d. Complement-mediated lysis - ANSWER A. The antibody reacts with the receptors on the target cell surface and modulates the function of the receptor by preventing interactions with their normal ligands, replacing the ligand and inappropriately stimulating the receptor or destroying the receptor. For example, in the hyperthyroidism (excessive thyroid activity) of Graves disease, autoantibody binds to and activates receptors for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (a pituitary hormone that controls the production of the hormone thyroxine by the thyroid). Graves disease is not a result of cell-mediated cytotoxicity, neutrophil-mediated damage, or complement-mediated lysis. Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by A. Interfering with the function of neurotransmitters B. Inhibiting the production of myelin around nerves C. Increasing the resting membrane potential D. Altering the transport of potassium into the nerves - ANSWER A Water movement between the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment and the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is primarily a function of: A. Osmotic Forces B. Plasma Oncotic Pressure C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Hydrostatic forces - ANSWER A Two thirds of the body's water is found in its a. Interstitial fluid spaces b. Vascular system c. Intracellular fluid compartments d. Intraocular fluids - ANSWER C What is the inflammatory effect of nitric oxide (NO)? a. Increases capillary permeability, and causes pain b. Increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation c. Causes smooth muscle contraction and fever d. Decreases mast cell function, and decreases platelet aggregation - ANSWER D. Effects of NO on inflammation include vasodilation by inducing relaxation of vascular smooth muscle, a response that is local and short-lived, and by suppressing mast cell function, as well as platelet adhesion and aggregation. NO does not increase capillary permeability and cause pain, increase neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation, or cause smooth muscle contraction and fever. Which cytokine is produced and released from virally infected host cells? a. IL-1 b. IL-10 c. TNF-α d. IFN-α - ANSWER D. Only interferons (IFNs) are produced and released by virally infected cells in response to viral double-stranded ribonucleic acid (RNA). IFN-α and IFN-β induce the production of antiviral proteins, thereby conferring protection on uninfected cells. IFN-α or IFN-β is released from virally infected cells and attaches to a receptor on a neighboring cell. IFNs also enhance the efficiency of developing an acquired immune response. IL-1 is a proinflammatory interleukin. IL-10 plays a critical role in wound healing. TNF has several systemic effects but is not released from virally infected host cells. What does the phagosome step result in during the process of endocytosis? a. Microorganisms are ingested. b. Microorganisms are killed and digested. c. Phagocytes recognize and adhere to bacteria. d. An intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed. - ANSWER D. Small pseudopods that extend from the plasma membrane and surround the adherent microorganism, forming an intracellular phagocytic vacuole or phagosome, carry out engulfment (endocytosis). The membrane that surrounds the phagosome consists of inverted plasma membrane. After the formation of the phagosome, lysosomes converge, fuse with the phagosome, and discharge their contents, creating a phagolysosome. A student asks the healthcare professional to describe exotoxins. Which statement by the professional is best? a. Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. b. Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria. c. Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. d. Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. - ANSWER D. Exotoxins are proteins released during bacterial growth. Exotoxins are not contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria, released during lysis of bacterial, or able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. A healthcare professional student is learning about fungal infections. What information should the student use to help another student understand? a. Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails. b. Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections. c. Fungal infections release endotoxins. d. Vaccines prevent fungal infections. - ANSWER B. The host defense against fungal infection includes the fungistatic properties of neutrophils and macrophages. T lymphocytes are crucial in limiting the extent of infection and producing cytokines to further activate macrophages. Fungi infect other tissue types such as vaginal or gastrointestinal. Fungi do not release endotoxins; they reside in the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. Fungal infections are not prevented by current vaccines. Cytokines are thought to cause fevers by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator? a. Leukotriene b. Histamine c. Prostaglandin d. Bradykinin - ANSWER C. Cytokines seem to raise the thermoregulatory set point through stimulation of prostaglandin synthesis and turnover in thermoregulatory (brain) and nonthermoregulatory (peripheral) tissues. Leukotrienes, histamine, and bradykinin are not directly related to fever production After sexual transmission of HIV, how soon can lab results detect the infection? a. 1 to 2 days b. 4 to 10 days c. 4 to 8 weeks d. 2 to 4 months - ANSWER B. HIV RNA may be detected in the plasma by about 4 to 10 days after an acute infection and HIV.

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Inflammatory and Immune Responses in
Chronic and Acute Diseases
questions & 100% verified answers
Aspiration pneumonitis - ANSWER a condition caused by the
abnormal entry of fluids, particulate matter, or secretions into the lower
airways that can lead to chemical pneumonitis from entry of toxic
material such as gastric acid, from bacterial infection, or by mechanical
obstruction of the lower airways.


Asthma - ANSWER a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways
involving bronchial hyperresponsiveness and airway obstruction marked
by periodic attacks of wheezing, shortness of breath, a tight feeling in
the chest, and a cough that produces mucus because of an allergic
reaction triggered by certain drugs, irritants, viral infection, exercise, or
emotional stress.


Asymptomatic bacteriuria - ANSWER the presence of bacteria in the
urine without evidence of infection.


Ataxia-telangiectasia (AT) - ANSWER see Immune deficiency.


Ataxic cerebral palsy - ANSWER a form of cerebral palsy associated
with damage to the cerebellum and resulting in gait disturbances and
instability; at birth the infant may have hypotonia, but develops stiffness
of the trunk muscles later in infancy.

, Atelectasis - ANSWER part of or an entire lung collapses and the
alveoli deflate as a result of surgery, smoking, or blockage of a
bronchiole.


Absorption atelectasis - ANSWER collapse of lung tissue resulting
from gradual absorption of air from obstructed or hypoventilated alveoli
or from inhalation of concentrated oxygen or anesthetic agents.


Compression atelectasis - ANSWER air pressure in the pleural space
pushes against the already recoiled lung, causing compression
atelectasis, and against the mediastinum, compressing and displacing the
heart and great vessels.


Surfactant impairment - ANSWER decreased production or
inactivation of surfactant, which is necessary to reduce surface tension in
the alveoli and causes lung collapse during expiration; can occur
because of premature birth, acute respiratory distress syndrome,
anesthesia, or mechanical ventilation.


Atherosclerosis - ANSWER a type of arteriosclerosis in which the
inflammatory changes of thickening and hardening of the walls of large-
and medium-sized arteries are caused by an atheroma or plaque of lipids,
cells, and connective tissue in the tunica intima.


Atopic dermatitis (AD) (allergic dermatitis) - ANSWER a chronic
hereditary skin disease characterized by intense itching and inflamed
skin that causes redness, swelling, cracking, crusting, and scaling.

, Atrial septal defect (ASD) - ANSWER a congenital heart disease
involving the interatrial septum of the heart that separates the right and
left atria, which results in misdirected blood flow between the two sides
of the heart.


Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect - ANSWER a large hole is present
in the center of the heart where the wall between the atria joins the wall
between the ventricles, and the tricuspid and mitral valves are formed
into a single large valve that crosses the defect.


Atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH) - ANSWER abnormal proliferating
cells in breast ducts.


Atypical hyperplasia - ANSWER increased number of cells with some
variation in cellular structure but without sufficient qualitative or
quantitative features of carcinoma.


Atypical lobular hyperplasia (ALH) - ANSWER abnormal proliferating
cells in breast lobules.


Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) - ANSWER see Anemia.


Autoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia - ANSWER see
Thrombocytopenia.

, Autoimmune vascular purpura (allergic purpura) - ANSWER purpura
caused by antibody-mediated injury of blood vessel walls, typically
arterioles and capillaries. The reaction is directed to foreign proteins or
chemicals in the blood (microorganisms, drugs, or other chemicals) that
deposit on the vessel walls.


Autonomic hyperreflexia (dysreflexia) - ANSWER a syndrome
resulting from afferent stimuli that cause intense sympathetic discharge
originating with spinal cord injury above the major splanchnic outflow;
characterized by hypertension, bradycardia, sweating of the forehead,
severe headache, and piloerection on distention of the bladder and
rectum.


Autosomal agammaglobulinemia - ANSWER see Immune deficiency.


Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) - ANSWER
a progressive disease characterized by formation of multiple cysts of
varying size scattered diffusely throughout both kidneys, resulting in
compression and destruction of renal parenchyma, usually with
hypertension, gross hematuria, and uremia leading to progressive renal
failure.


Autosomal hyper-IgM syndrome - ANSWER see Immune deficiency.


Azotemia - ANSWER kidney dysfunction characterized by increased
serum urea levels and frequently associated with increased creatinine
levels.

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