for the Advanced Practice Nurse Actual Exam
Questions and Verified Answers 2024/2025
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?-
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: Sex-
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Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome h
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as the illness, it will be expressed.
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2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause?: I
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ntellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading know
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n cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
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3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?: Chorionic villus sampling
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(CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenata
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l diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provid
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es genetic information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14
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of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form
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of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second t
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mester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to imp
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lantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chro
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mosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing ge
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ne?: Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This
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,q term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat synd
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rome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
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5. How can an X- q q q
linked recessive disease skip generations?: The disease can be transmitted through fem
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ale carriers.
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Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffecte
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d X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease becaus
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e she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
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6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire po
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pulation to the disease rate in an unexposed population?: Relative risk is a ratio of prob
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ability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
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7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?: -
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q Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and ev
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aluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
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8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.: The imprinted gene is the silent gen
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e of a gene pair.
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9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflamma-
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q tion and wound healing?: The underlying chronic illness exists.
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,A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to
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fight against illness.
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10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?: -
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Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
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11. What Phagocytes bacteria?: Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
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12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?: Helper T cells
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13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when co
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nsidering the antigen?: Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize some
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thing foreign. q
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing
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an ABO incompatibility?: The complement pathway is activated in re-
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q sponse to blood incompatibility.q q q
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?: An immedia
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te (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
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16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections?: Infection with a fungus is
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called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin myc
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oses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and asper
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gillus.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect i
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nfection?: Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, where
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as HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing
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may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, esp
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ecially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
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18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins?: Exotoxins are released during bacte-
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, q rial growth. q
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for devel
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oping colon cancer?: The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied
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q and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
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20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years mo
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st likely to develop?: Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining
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q cancer.
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
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The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength.: UV light causes basal c
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ll carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thy
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mine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thym
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ine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
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