MODULE 4 PCOL & HARMACOKINETICS
(red & green) Exam
1. The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the:
A. Specific carrier proteins and shows saturation kinetics
B. Concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment
C. Both
D. NOTA - correct answer-B. Concentration gradient across a membrane
separating body compartment
2. The ff. Are manifestations of chemical incompatibility EXCEPT
A. Immiscibility
B. Photolysis
C. Gel formation
D. Evolution of gas - correct answer-A. Immiscibility
3. Which of the following anti-TB drugs can cause red-green color blindness?
A. Rifamcin
B. Isoniazid
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
E. Streptomycin - correct answer-D. Ethambutol
4. It is known as the rodent poison
A. Hydrogen sulfide
B. Phosphorous
C. Carbon disulfide
D. Carbon tetrachloride
E. Carbon monoxide - correct answer-B. Phosphorous
5. Dose dumping is defined as:
A. an intended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic
circulation
B. an unintended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic
circulation
C. slow release of the drug into the systemic circulation
D. Slow absorption of the drug into the systemic circulation - correct answer-
B. an unintended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic
circulation
6. Physical factors influencing absorption:
A. Total surface area available for absorption
, B. Contact time at the absorption surface
C. Blood flow to the absorption site
D. AOTA
E. NOTA - correct answer-D. AOTA
7. Drug 'x' binds to drug 'y' as a result of which an inactive complex is formed. This
type of antagonism is called
A. Competitive antagonism
B. Non-competitive antagonism
C. Physiologic antagonism
D. Neutralizing antagonism
E. Partial antagonism - correct answer-D. Neutralizing antagonism
8. Which ff. Routes of administration has no first-pass effect?
I. Buccal
1. II. Sublingual
2. III. Oral
3. IV. Rectal
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. III only
E. I, II, and IV - correct answer-E. I, II, and IV
9. If the AUc for the Phenobarbital administered orally by tablet is 6.5 mcg/mL x hr
and the AUC for the Phenobarbital solution can give th the same dose and route
is 8.4 mcg/mL calculate the relative bioavailability of the drug.
A. 129.23%
B. 100%
C. 77.38%
D. 56.38%
E. 43.62% - correct answer-C. 77.38%
10. For most drugs, which part of the gastrointestinal tract is the optimum site for
drug absorption after the oral administration?
A. Buccal cavity
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Jejunum
E. Colon - correct answer-C. Duodenum
11. A rate limiting factor in the dissolution of drugs is:
A. Disintegration of the tablet
B. Thickness
C. Content uniformity
, D. Local effect - correct answer-A. Disintegration of the tablet
12. The principal site of drug metabolism is
A. Kidney
B. Muscle tissue
C. Gut wall
D. Liver - correct answer-D. Liver
13. The mechanism for drug excretion via the kidney is:
A. Active transport
B. Glomerular filtration
C. Pinocytosis
D. Passive diffusion - correct answer-B. Glomerular filtration
14. The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug action, EXCEPT:
A. Reduces gastric emptying rate
B. Milk reduces absorption of tetracycline
C. Tea increase absorption of paracetamol
D. Vegetables potentiates anticoagulant
E. NOTA - correct answer-D. Vegetables potentiates anticoagulant
15. A patient asked why he's taking antibiotics for an ulcer. The pharmacist explains
that antibiotics will
A. Destroy the bacteria causing the ulcer
B. Destroy the virus causing the ulcer
C. Prevent infection from entering through open areas in the gastric mucosa
D. Prevent infection occurring
E. NOTA - correct answer-A. Destroy the bacteria causing the ulcer
16. Which of the following anesthetics is useful for producing a short term
anesthesia?
A. Lidocaine
B. Thiopental Na
C. Chloroform
D. N2O
E. NOTA - correct answer-B. Thiopental Na
17. Clinical effectiveness often depends on:
A. Maximum serum drug concentration
B. Minimum serum drug concentration
C. Time after concentration required to reach onset of concentration
D. AOTA
E. NOTA - correct answer-A. Maximum serum drug concentration
18. Process by which drugs find their way into the urine, EXCEPT:
A. Active glomerular filtration
, B. Active tubular secretion
C. Passive tubular secretion
D. Passive glomerular filtration
E. NOTA - correct answer-A. Active glomerular filtration
19. When the dose of the drug is gradually increased and the first noticeable effect is
observed, the dose that produces this effect is called:
A. Quantal dose
B. Threshold dose
C. Lethal dose
D. A and B
E. B and C - correct answer-B. Threshold dose
20. Treatment of neuroses
A. Psychotherapy
B. Anxiolytic
C. Anti-anxiety agent
D. AOTA
E. NOTA - correct answer-D. AOTA
21. Regulates and directs sensory impulses traveling to the cortex:
A. Thalamus
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Hypothalamus - correct answer-A. Thalamus
22. It is the drug of choice for beta adrenergic antagonist poisoning
A. Propranolol
B. Atropine
C. Glucagon
D. Ethanol
E. Valium - correct answer-C. Glucagon
23. Which of the following drugs causes "red man red neck syndrome"?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Amphotericin B
C. Vancomycin
D. Erythromycin
E. NOTA - correct answer-C. Vancomycin
24. Patient taking Rifampicin in combination with isoniazid develops what type of
toxicity?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Otoxicity
C. Neurotoxicity
D. Hepatotoxicity
(red & green) Exam
1. The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the:
A. Specific carrier proteins and shows saturation kinetics
B. Concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment
C. Both
D. NOTA - correct answer-B. Concentration gradient across a membrane
separating body compartment
2. The ff. Are manifestations of chemical incompatibility EXCEPT
A. Immiscibility
B. Photolysis
C. Gel formation
D. Evolution of gas - correct answer-A. Immiscibility
3. Which of the following anti-TB drugs can cause red-green color blindness?
A. Rifamcin
B. Isoniazid
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
E. Streptomycin - correct answer-D. Ethambutol
4. It is known as the rodent poison
A. Hydrogen sulfide
B. Phosphorous
C. Carbon disulfide
D. Carbon tetrachloride
E. Carbon monoxide - correct answer-B. Phosphorous
5. Dose dumping is defined as:
A. an intended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic
circulation
B. an unintended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic
circulation
C. slow release of the drug into the systemic circulation
D. Slow absorption of the drug into the systemic circulation - correct answer-
B. an unintended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic
circulation
6. Physical factors influencing absorption:
A. Total surface area available for absorption
, B. Contact time at the absorption surface
C. Blood flow to the absorption site
D. AOTA
E. NOTA - correct answer-D. AOTA
7. Drug 'x' binds to drug 'y' as a result of which an inactive complex is formed. This
type of antagonism is called
A. Competitive antagonism
B. Non-competitive antagonism
C. Physiologic antagonism
D. Neutralizing antagonism
E. Partial antagonism - correct answer-D. Neutralizing antagonism
8. Which ff. Routes of administration has no first-pass effect?
I. Buccal
1. II. Sublingual
2. III. Oral
3. IV. Rectal
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. III only
E. I, II, and IV - correct answer-E. I, II, and IV
9. If the AUc for the Phenobarbital administered orally by tablet is 6.5 mcg/mL x hr
and the AUC for the Phenobarbital solution can give th the same dose and route
is 8.4 mcg/mL calculate the relative bioavailability of the drug.
A. 129.23%
B. 100%
C. 77.38%
D. 56.38%
E. 43.62% - correct answer-C. 77.38%
10. For most drugs, which part of the gastrointestinal tract is the optimum site for
drug absorption after the oral administration?
A. Buccal cavity
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Jejunum
E. Colon - correct answer-C. Duodenum
11. A rate limiting factor in the dissolution of drugs is:
A. Disintegration of the tablet
B. Thickness
C. Content uniformity
, D. Local effect - correct answer-A. Disintegration of the tablet
12. The principal site of drug metabolism is
A. Kidney
B. Muscle tissue
C. Gut wall
D. Liver - correct answer-D. Liver
13. The mechanism for drug excretion via the kidney is:
A. Active transport
B. Glomerular filtration
C. Pinocytosis
D. Passive diffusion - correct answer-B. Glomerular filtration
14. The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug action, EXCEPT:
A. Reduces gastric emptying rate
B. Milk reduces absorption of tetracycline
C. Tea increase absorption of paracetamol
D. Vegetables potentiates anticoagulant
E. NOTA - correct answer-D. Vegetables potentiates anticoagulant
15. A patient asked why he's taking antibiotics for an ulcer. The pharmacist explains
that antibiotics will
A. Destroy the bacteria causing the ulcer
B. Destroy the virus causing the ulcer
C. Prevent infection from entering through open areas in the gastric mucosa
D. Prevent infection occurring
E. NOTA - correct answer-A. Destroy the bacteria causing the ulcer
16. Which of the following anesthetics is useful for producing a short term
anesthesia?
A. Lidocaine
B. Thiopental Na
C. Chloroform
D. N2O
E. NOTA - correct answer-B. Thiopental Na
17. Clinical effectiveness often depends on:
A. Maximum serum drug concentration
B. Minimum serum drug concentration
C. Time after concentration required to reach onset of concentration
D. AOTA
E. NOTA - correct answer-A. Maximum serum drug concentration
18. Process by which drugs find their way into the urine, EXCEPT:
A. Active glomerular filtration
, B. Active tubular secretion
C. Passive tubular secretion
D. Passive glomerular filtration
E. NOTA - correct answer-A. Active glomerular filtration
19. When the dose of the drug is gradually increased and the first noticeable effect is
observed, the dose that produces this effect is called:
A. Quantal dose
B. Threshold dose
C. Lethal dose
D. A and B
E. B and C - correct answer-B. Threshold dose
20. Treatment of neuroses
A. Psychotherapy
B. Anxiolytic
C. Anti-anxiety agent
D. AOTA
E. NOTA - correct answer-D. AOTA
21. Regulates and directs sensory impulses traveling to the cortex:
A. Thalamus
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Hypothalamus - correct answer-A. Thalamus
22. It is the drug of choice for beta adrenergic antagonist poisoning
A. Propranolol
B. Atropine
C. Glucagon
D. Ethanol
E. Valium - correct answer-C. Glucagon
23. Which of the following drugs causes "red man red neck syndrome"?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Amphotericin B
C. Vancomycin
D. Erythromycin
E. NOTA - correct answer-C. Vancomycin
24. Patient taking Rifampicin in combination with isoniazid develops what type of
toxicity?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Otoxicity
C. Neurotoxicity
D. Hepatotoxicity
