1|Page
HESI PHARMACOLOGY EVOLVE EXAM TEST BANK
2024 | 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH EXPLANATIONS | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED
ANSWERS | LATEST EXAM
The practical nurse (PN) observes a thick white coating on the tongue of a client who takes
fluphenazine (Prolixin). What instructions should the PN reinforce with the client about this
medication?
A) No treatment is needed as the coating should subside in a couple of weeks.
B) Attempt to stop smoking if the white coating on your tongue persists.
C) If you are taking any inhalants, wash the mouthpiece after each use.
D) Brush your teeth and tongue, floss, gargle, and notify the healthcare provider. - Correct
Answer-
D) Brush your teeth and tongue, floss, gargle, and notify the healthcare provider.
Feedback:
Fluphenazine (Prolixin), an antipsychotic with anticholinergic effects, causes dry mouth, which
contributes to a thick white coating on the tongue that alters the normal flora in the mouth.
Regular brushing of the tongue and teeth is a good preventive measure, and the healthcare
provider should be notified (D) because treatment may be indicated if an oral infection develops.
(A) is inaccurate. (B and C) do not convey the importance of calling the healthcare provider.
An adult male arrives in the clinic requesting a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). Which client
history should the practical nurse (PN) report to the healthcare provider?
A) Hypogonadism.
B) Fluid retention.
C) The use of nitrates.
D) Benign prostatic hypertrophy.
- Correct Answer-C) The use of nitrates.
Feedback:
Sildenafil can lower blood pressure by causing vasodilation. A client who takes a nitrate (C), a
vasodilator, for a pre-existing cardiovascular disease can experience significant hypotension if
Viagra is taken concomittently with nitrates, such as nitroglycerin, which should be reported to
the healthcare provider. (A, B, and D) are not contraindications for the use of Viagra.
The practical nurse (PN) should reinforce what time frame with a client about self-administration
of lispro insulin (Humalog)?
,2|Page
A) Take after a meal is completed.
B) Take once daily at the midday meal.
C) Take within 15 minutes of beginning a meal.
D) Take only before bedtime with an evening snack.
- Correct Answer-C) Take within 15 minutes of beginning a meal.
Feedback:
Lispro, a very rapid acting insulin, has on onset of 5 to15 minutes after administration with a
duration of 4 to 6 hours, so the client should self-administer this insulin within 15 minutes before
a meal (C). (A, B, and D) are inaccurate.
A client who has been taking phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for symptoms of urethritis and cystitis
comes to the clinic because her urine is reddish-orange. Which question should the practical
nurse ask to determine if the medication has been effective?
A) How much water have you been drinking each day?
B) Does the urine color stain your toilet bowl or undergarments?
C) Have you had any relief from urinary pain, burning, or urgency?
D) Did your urine appear cloudy or have a foul odor on voiding?
- Correct Answer-C) Have you had any relief from urinary pain, burning, or urgency?
Feedback:
Phenazopyridine, an over-the-counter urinary analgesic, acts on the mucosa of the urinary tract
to relieve urinary pain, burning, itching, or urgency (C) associated with urethritis and cystitis.
Although determining if the client is forcing fluids (A), experiencing staining from Pyridium's side
effect (B), or having signs of a urinary infection (D) are worthwhile assessments, the therapeutic
response of Pyridium is related to urinary discomforts only.
A male client who has been receiving an antineoplastic drug has developed thrombocytopenia.
What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce?
A) Use suppository form of drugs.
B) Avoid large public gatherings.
C) Rise slowly when standing up.
D) Shave with an electric razor.
- Correct Answer-D) Shave with an electric razor.
Feedback:
Thrombocytopenia is a common side effect of bone marrow depression caused by several
antineoplastic agents. The client is experiencing a low platelet count and should use an electric
razor (D) to reduce his risk of bleeding. (A, B, and C) are not indicated for a client who needs to
implement thrombocytopenia precautions.
The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who has been taking prednisone (Deltasone) daily
for a year. Which adverse effect should the PN document in the client's record?
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A) Photosensitvity.
B) Weight gain.
C) Loss of hair.
D) Pale skin color.
- Correct Answer-B) Weight gain.
Feedback:
Long term use of prednisone causes fluid retention and redistribution of fat deposition. Weight
gain (B) and moon face reflect adverse effects of long-term prednisone use and should be
documented. (A, C, and D) do not occur with treatment using prednisone.
A female client with recurring headaches tells the practical nurse (PN) that she has been taking
at least 4 grams of acetaminophen a day. Which laboratory studies should the PN review for this
client?
A) Creatinine clearance.
B) Hepatic enzymes.
C) Coagulation values.
D) Arterial blood gases. - Correct Answer-B) Hepatic enzymes.
Feedback:
Liver toxicity can occur when doses of acetaminophen exceed 4 grams a day, resulting in an
elevation in hepatic enzyme values (B). (A, C, and D) do not reveal findings related to
acetaminophen toxicity.
A client receives a prescription for an oral opioid analgesic for post-operative pain. Which
adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) monitor for with the client?
A) Constipation.
B) Photosensitivity.
C) Decreased heart rate.
D) Frequent urination. - Correct Answer-A) Constipation.
Feedback:
Opioid analgesics slow peristalsis, which leads to constipation (A), a common side effect of
opiates. (B, C, and D) are not associated with opioid analgesics.
Which action should the practical nurse implement when administering a buccal medication?
A) Encourage the client to swallow.
B) Administer water with medication.
C) Ensure the medication is positioned under the tongue.
D) Place the medication between the upper molar teeth and cheek.
- Correct Answer-D) Place the medication between the upper molar teeth and cheek.
Feedback:
Buccal medications are placed between the upper molar teeth and the cheek (D) for absorption
by the capillaries of the oral mucosa. The client should be cautioned against swallowing, not (A).
Buccal medications are not administered with water (B). (C) describes sublingual administration.
, 4|Page
What assessment is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to obtain prior to initiating
medication therapy with phenelzine (Nardil) for a client with depression?
A) Activity level.
B) Mood and affect.
C) Understanding of diet modification.
D) The client's support system.
- Correct Answer-C) Understanding of diet modification.
Feedback:
To prevent a potentially lethal hypertensive crisis, a tyramine-free diet should be maintained
during antidepressant therapy with Nardil, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). It is most
important to determine if the client understands diet modification (C) before Nardil is initiated to
prevent consumption of foods that interact with Nardil. Although a client's activity level (A) and
mood and affect (B) should be monitored during antidepressant therapy, it is most important
that the client understand diet modifications. The client's support system (D) and network of
family and friends is important, but the client should understand the responsibility of dietary
compliance with the medication regimen.
The practical nurse (PN) is unable to arouse a client who is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for
postoperative pain. The client is stuporous, has constricted pupils, and a respiratory rate of 8
breaths/minute. Which PRN prescription should the PN give the client?
A) Naloxone (Narcan).
B) Promethazine (Phenergan).
C) Metoclopramide (Reglan).
D) Bethanechol (Urecholine).
- Correct Answer-A) Naloxone (Narcan).
Feedback:
Narcan (A) is an opioid antagonist and should be administered to reverse the effects of a
Demerol, an opioid, overdose. (B, C, and D) are common postoperative PRN prescriptions but are
not indicated for narcotic overdose.
A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who has contracted a trichomonal infection. Which oral
drug should the nurse anticipate that the primary healthcare provider will most likely prescribe?
- Correct Answer-Metronidazole
A pregnant client states to the nurse, "I have been advised to take an over-the-counter
medication for the flu. The drug label says it is a category B drug." How should the nurse respond
to these statements? - Correct Answer-"This drug does not show risks to an animal fetus so you
can safely take it while pregnant."
A client who has a habit of smoking is on estrogen therapy. What condition is the client at risk of
developing? - Correct Answer-Thrombosis
HESI PHARMACOLOGY EVOLVE EXAM TEST BANK
2024 | 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH EXPLANATIONS | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED
ANSWERS | LATEST EXAM
The practical nurse (PN) observes a thick white coating on the tongue of a client who takes
fluphenazine (Prolixin). What instructions should the PN reinforce with the client about this
medication?
A) No treatment is needed as the coating should subside in a couple of weeks.
B) Attempt to stop smoking if the white coating on your tongue persists.
C) If you are taking any inhalants, wash the mouthpiece after each use.
D) Brush your teeth and tongue, floss, gargle, and notify the healthcare provider. - Correct
Answer-
D) Brush your teeth and tongue, floss, gargle, and notify the healthcare provider.
Feedback:
Fluphenazine (Prolixin), an antipsychotic with anticholinergic effects, causes dry mouth, which
contributes to a thick white coating on the tongue that alters the normal flora in the mouth.
Regular brushing of the tongue and teeth is a good preventive measure, and the healthcare
provider should be notified (D) because treatment may be indicated if an oral infection develops.
(A) is inaccurate. (B and C) do not convey the importance of calling the healthcare provider.
An adult male arrives in the clinic requesting a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). Which client
history should the practical nurse (PN) report to the healthcare provider?
A) Hypogonadism.
B) Fluid retention.
C) The use of nitrates.
D) Benign prostatic hypertrophy.
- Correct Answer-C) The use of nitrates.
Feedback:
Sildenafil can lower blood pressure by causing vasodilation. A client who takes a nitrate (C), a
vasodilator, for a pre-existing cardiovascular disease can experience significant hypotension if
Viagra is taken concomittently with nitrates, such as nitroglycerin, which should be reported to
the healthcare provider. (A, B, and D) are not contraindications for the use of Viagra.
The practical nurse (PN) should reinforce what time frame with a client about self-administration
of lispro insulin (Humalog)?
,2|Page
A) Take after a meal is completed.
B) Take once daily at the midday meal.
C) Take within 15 minutes of beginning a meal.
D) Take only before bedtime with an evening snack.
- Correct Answer-C) Take within 15 minutes of beginning a meal.
Feedback:
Lispro, a very rapid acting insulin, has on onset of 5 to15 minutes after administration with a
duration of 4 to 6 hours, so the client should self-administer this insulin within 15 minutes before
a meal (C). (A, B, and D) are inaccurate.
A client who has been taking phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for symptoms of urethritis and cystitis
comes to the clinic because her urine is reddish-orange. Which question should the practical
nurse ask to determine if the medication has been effective?
A) How much water have you been drinking each day?
B) Does the urine color stain your toilet bowl or undergarments?
C) Have you had any relief from urinary pain, burning, or urgency?
D) Did your urine appear cloudy or have a foul odor on voiding?
- Correct Answer-C) Have you had any relief from urinary pain, burning, or urgency?
Feedback:
Phenazopyridine, an over-the-counter urinary analgesic, acts on the mucosa of the urinary tract
to relieve urinary pain, burning, itching, or urgency (C) associated with urethritis and cystitis.
Although determining if the client is forcing fluids (A), experiencing staining from Pyridium's side
effect (B), or having signs of a urinary infection (D) are worthwhile assessments, the therapeutic
response of Pyridium is related to urinary discomforts only.
A male client who has been receiving an antineoplastic drug has developed thrombocytopenia.
What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce?
A) Use suppository form of drugs.
B) Avoid large public gatherings.
C) Rise slowly when standing up.
D) Shave with an electric razor.
- Correct Answer-D) Shave with an electric razor.
Feedback:
Thrombocytopenia is a common side effect of bone marrow depression caused by several
antineoplastic agents. The client is experiencing a low platelet count and should use an electric
razor (D) to reduce his risk of bleeding. (A, B, and C) are not indicated for a client who needs to
implement thrombocytopenia precautions.
The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who has been taking prednisone (Deltasone) daily
for a year. Which adverse effect should the PN document in the client's record?
,3|Page
A) Photosensitvity.
B) Weight gain.
C) Loss of hair.
D) Pale skin color.
- Correct Answer-B) Weight gain.
Feedback:
Long term use of prednisone causes fluid retention and redistribution of fat deposition. Weight
gain (B) and moon face reflect adverse effects of long-term prednisone use and should be
documented. (A, C, and D) do not occur with treatment using prednisone.
A female client with recurring headaches tells the practical nurse (PN) that she has been taking
at least 4 grams of acetaminophen a day. Which laboratory studies should the PN review for this
client?
A) Creatinine clearance.
B) Hepatic enzymes.
C) Coagulation values.
D) Arterial blood gases. - Correct Answer-B) Hepatic enzymes.
Feedback:
Liver toxicity can occur when doses of acetaminophen exceed 4 grams a day, resulting in an
elevation in hepatic enzyme values (B). (A, C, and D) do not reveal findings related to
acetaminophen toxicity.
A client receives a prescription for an oral opioid analgesic for post-operative pain. Which
adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) monitor for with the client?
A) Constipation.
B) Photosensitivity.
C) Decreased heart rate.
D) Frequent urination. - Correct Answer-A) Constipation.
Feedback:
Opioid analgesics slow peristalsis, which leads to constipation (A), a common side effect of
opiates. (B, C, and D) are not associated with opioid analgesics.
Which action should the practical nurse implement when administering a buccal medication?
A) Encourage the client to swallow.
B) Administer water with medication.
C) Ensure the medication is positioned under the tongue.
D) Place the medication between the upper molar teeth and cheek.
- Correct Answer-D) Place the medication between the upper molar teeth and cheek.
Feedback:
Buccal medications are placed between the upper molar teeth and the cheek (D) for absorption
by the capillaries of the oral mucosa. The client should be cautioned against swallowing, not (A).
Buccal medications are not administered with water (B). (C) describes sublingual administration.
, 4|Page
What assessment is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to obtain prior to initiating
medication therapy with phenelzine (Nardil) for a client with depression?
A) Activity level.
B) Mood and affect.
C) Understanding of diet modification.
D) The client's support system.
- Correct Answer-C) Understanding of diet modification.
Feedback:
To prevent a potentially lethal hypertensive crisis, a tyramine-free diet should be maintained
during antidepressant therapy with Nardil, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). It is most
important to determine if the client understands diet modification (C) before Nardil is initiated to
prevent consumption of foods that interact with Nardil. Although a client's activity level (A) and
mood and affect (B) should be monitored during antidepressant therapy, it is most important
that the client understand diet modifications. The client's support system (D) and network of
family and friends is important, but the client should understand the responsibility of dietary
compliance with the medication regimen.
The practical nurse (PN) is unable to arouse a client who is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for
postoperative pain. The client is stuporous, has constricted pupils, and a respiratory rate of 8
breaths/minute. Which PRN prescription should the PN give the client?
A) Naloxone (Narcan).
B) Promethazine (Phenergan).
C) Metoclopramide (Reglan).
D) Bethanechol (Urecholine).
- Correct Answer-A) Naloxone (Narcan).
Feedback:
Narcan (A) is an opioid antagonist and should be administered to reverse the effects of a
Demerol, an opioid, overdose. (B, C, and D) are common postoperative PRN prescriptions but are
not indicated for narcotic overdose.
A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who has contracted a trichomonal infection. Which oral
drug should the nurse anticipate that the primary healthcare provider will most likely prescribe?
- Correct Answer-Metronidazole
A pregnant client states to the nurse, "I have been advised to take an over-the-counter
medication for the flu. The drug label says it is a category B drug." How should the nurse respond
to these statements? - Correct Answer-"This drug does not show risks to an animal fetus so you
can safely take it while pregnant."
A client who has a habit of smoking is on estrogen therapy. What condition is the client at risk of
developing? - Correct Answer-Thrombosis
