EVOLVE ELSEVIER HESI MED SURG EXAM LATEST 2024-
2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
DETAILED WITH RATIONALES/EVOLVE ELSEVIER HESI
MED SURG EXAM ALREADY GRADED A+
A client with hypertension has been receiving ramipril, 5 mg PO, daily for 2 weeks
and is scheduled to receive a dose at 0900. At 0830, the client's blood pressure is
120/70 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the prescribed dose at the scheduled time.
B. Hold the dose and contact the health care provider.
C. Hold the dose and recheck the blood pressure in 1 hour.
D. Check the health care provider's prescription to clarify the dose. - ANSWER-
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:The client's blood pressure is within normal limits, indicating that the
ramipril, an antihypertensive, is having the desired effect and should be
administered. Options B and C would be appropriate if the client's blood pressure
was excessively low (<100 mm Hg systolic) or if the client were exhibiting signs of
hypotension such as dizziness. This prescribed dose is within the normal dosage
range, as defined by the manufacturer; therefore, option D is not necessary
,The nurse is providing care for a client diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia (tic
douloureux). Which symptoms will the nurse be looking for in the focused
assessment related to this condition? (Select all that apply.)
A. Facial muscle spasms
B. Sudden facial pain
C. Unilateral facial weakness
D. Difficulty in chewing
E.Tinnitus
F.Hearing difficulties - ANSWER-Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale:Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysms of pain, similar to an
electric shock, in the area innervated by one or more branches of the trigeminal
nerve (cranial V). The remaining symptoms are not related to trigeminal neuralgia.
The nurse is concerned about infection for a client after an esophagogastrostomy
for esophageal cancer. Which actions should the nurse include in the client's plan
of care? (Select all that apply.)
A. Frequent oral care every 2 hours while awake.
B. Use incentive spirometer every 2 hours.
C. Empty contents from NG tube every 8 hours.
D. Ambulate within 1 hour of return from the PACU.
E. Limit visitors until postoperative day 2. - ANSWER-Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale:One hour post op is too soon to ambulate for this client. Visitors help
support the patient and are encouraged to visit. Oral care is necessary as the
client will be NPO. To decrease the risk of infection post operatively, implement
,routine pulmonary exercises. The client will have an NG tube in place, likely to
intermittent suction, to decompress the stomach post surgery.
The client is return demonstrating wrapping of the left limb amputated above the
knee. The nurse evaluates the client is starting the wrapping method correctly
when the client places the end of the bandage at which point?
A.Around the waist
B.At the inner aspect of the left stump
C.At the outer aspect of the left stump
D.At the left groin area - ANSWER-Correct Answer: A
Rationale:The waist is the anchor point for the bandage for an above the knee
amputation.
A nurse is assisting an 82-year-old client with ambulation and is concerned that
the client may fall. Which area contains the older person's center of gravity?
A. Head and neck
B. Upper torso
C. Bilateral arms
D. Feet and legs - ANSWER-Correct Answer: B
Rationale:Stooped posture results in the upper torso becoming the center of
gravity for older persons. The center of gravity for adults is the hips. However, as a
person grows older, a stooped posture is common because of changes caused by
osteoporosis and normal bone degeneration. Furthermore, the knees, hips, and
elbows flex. The head and neck and feet and legs are not the center of gravity in
the older adult. Although the arms comprise a part of the upper torso, they do not
reflect the best and most complete answer.
, In caring for a client with acute diverticulitis, which assessment data warrants an
immediate nursing action?
A. The client has a rigid hard abdomen and elevated WBC.
B. The client has left lower quadrant pain and an elevated temperature.
C.The client is refusing to eat any of the meal and is complaining of nausea.
D. The client has not had a bowel movement in 2 days and has a soft abdomen. -
ANSWER-Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A hard rigid abdomen and elevated WBC is indicative of peritonitis,
which is a medical emergency and should be reported to the health care provider
immediately. Options B and C are expected clinical manifestations of diverticulitis.
Option D does not warrant immediate intervention.
The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured right elbow. Which assessment
finding has the highest priority and requires immediate intervention?
A. Ecchymosis over the right elbow area
B. Deep unrelenting pain in the right arm
C. An edematous right elbow
D. The presence of crepitus in the right elbow - ANSWER-Correct Answer: B
Rationale:Compartment syndrome is a condition involving increased pressure and
constriction of the nerves and vessels within an anatomic compartment, causing
pain uncontrolled by opioids and neurovascular compromise. Option A is an
expected finding. Option C related to compartment syndrome cannot be seen,
and any visible edema is an expected finding related to the injury. Option D is an
expected finding.
2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
DETAILED WITH RATIONALES/EVOLVE ELSEVIER HESI
MED SURG EXAM ALREADY GRADED A+
A client with hypertension has been receiving ramipril, 5 mg PO, daily for 2 weeks
and is scheduled to receive a dose at 0900. At 0830, the client's blood pressure is
120/70 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the prescribed dose at the scheduled time.
B. Hold the dose and contact the health care provider.
C. Hold the dose and recheck the blood pressure in 1 hour.
D. Check the health care provider's prescription to clarify the dose. - ANSWER-
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:The client's blood pressure is within normal limits, indicating that the
ramipril, an antihypertensive, is having the desired effect and should be
administered. Options B and C would be appropriate if the client's blood pressure
was excessively low (<100 mm Hg systolic) or if the client were exhibiting signs of
hypotension such as dizziness. This prescribed dose is within the normal dosage
range, as defined by the manufacturer; therefore, option D is not necessary
,The nurse is providing care for a client diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia (tic
douloureux). Which symptoms will the nurse be looking for in the focused
assessment related to this condition? (Select all that apply.)
A. Facial muscle spasms
B. Sudden facial pain
C. Unilateral facial weakness
D. Difficulty in chewing
E.Tinnitus
F.Hearing difficulties - ANSWER-Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale:Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysms of pain, similar to an
electric shock, in the area innervated by one or more branches of the trigeminal
nerve (cranial V). The remaining symptoms are not related to trigeminal neuralgia.
The nurse is concerned about infection for a client after an esophagogastrostomy
for esophageal cancer. Which actions should the nurse include in the client's plan
of care? (Select all that apply.)
A. Frequent oral care every 2 hours while awake.
B. Use incentive spirometer every 2 hours.
C. Empty contents from NG tube every 8 hours.
D. Ambulate within 1 hour of return from the PACU.
E. Limit visitors until postoperative day 2. - ANSWER-Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale:One hour post op is too soon to ambulate for this client. Visitors help
support the patient and are encouraged to visit. Oral care is necessary as the
client will be NPO. To decrease the risk of infection post operatively, implement
,routine pulmonary exercises. The client will have an NG tube in place, likely to
intermittent suction, to decompress the stomach post surgery.
The client is return demonstrating wrapping of the left limb amputated above the
knee. The nurse evaluates the client is starting the wrapping method correctly
when the client places the end of the bandage at which point?
A.Around the waist
B.At the inner aspect of the left stump
C.At the outer aspect of the left stump
D.At the left groin area - ANSWER-Correct Answer: A
Rationale:The waist is the anchor point for the bandage for an above the knee
amputation.
A nurse is assisting an 82-year-old client with ambulation and is concerned that
the client may fall. Which area contains the older person's center of gravity?
A. Head and neck
B. Upper torso
C. Bilateral arms
D. Feet and legs - ANSWER-Correct Answer: B
Rationale:Stooped posture results in the upper torso becoming the center of
gravity for older persons. The center of gravity for adults is the hips. However, as a
person grows older, a stooped posture is common because of changes caused by
osteoporosis and normal bone degeneration. Furthermore, the knees, hips, and
elbows flex. The head and neck and feet and legs are not the center of gravity in
the older adult. Although the arms comprise a part of the upper torso, they do not
reflect the best and most complete answer.
, In caring for a client with acute diverticulitis, which assessment data warrants an
immediate nursing action?
A. The client has a rigid hard abdomen and elevated WBC.
B. The client has left lower quadrant pain and an elevated temperature.
C.The client is refusing to eat any of the meal and is complaining of nausea.
D. The client has not had a bowel movement in 2 days and has a soft abdomen. -
ANSWER-Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A hard rigid abdomen and elevated WBC is indicative of peritonitis,
which is a medical emergency and should be reported to the health care provider
immediately. Options B and C are expected clinical manifestations of diverticulitis.
Option D does not warrant immediate intervention.
The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured right elbow. Which assessment
finding has the highest priority and requires immediate intervention?
A. Ecchymosis over the right elbow area
B. Deep unrelenting pain in the right arm
C. An edematous right elbow
D. The presence of crepitus in the right elbow - ANSWER-Correct Answer: B
Rationale:Compartment syndrome is a condition involving increased pressure and
constriction of the nerves and vessels within an anatomic compartment, causing
pain uncontrolled by opioids and neurovascular compromise. Option A is an
expected finding. Option C related to compartment syndrome cannot be seen,
and any visible edema is an expected finding related to the injury. Option D is an
expected finding.
