CompTIA CASP+ Security Operations Test 2 with 100% Correct answers
1. Which of the following best defines a "false positive" in security monitoring?
• A) A legitimate threat that is identified as benign
• B) An alert indicating a threat that does not exist
• C) A successful breach of security
• Answer: B) An alert indicating a threat that does not exist
• Explanation: A false positive occurs when a security system incorrectly identifies benign activity
as malicious, leading to unnecessary investigations.
2. What is the primary purpose of a vulnerability assessment?
• A) To develop new security policies
• B) To identify and prioritize vulnerabilities in a system
• C) To encrypt sensitive data
• Answer: B) To identify and prioritize vulnerabilities in a system
• Explanation: Vulnerability assessments focus on identifying weaknesses in systems and
prioritizing them based on risk levels for remediation.
3. Which of the following describes a "sandbox" in cybersecurity?
• A) A method of data encryption
• B) A testing environment for untrusted programs
• C) A firewall configuration
• Answer: B) A testing environment for untrusted programs
• Explanation: A sandbox is an isolated environment where untrusted code can be executed
without affecting the main system, allowing for safe testing.
4. What is the role of a security operations analyst?
• A) To develop software
• B) To monitor, detect, and respond to security incidents
• C) To manage corporate budgets
• Answer: B) To monitor, detect, and respond to security incidents
• Explanation: Security operations analysts are responsible for analyzing security alerts and
incidents to mitigate threats and enhance the organization's security posture.
5. Which type of security control focuses on detecting and alerting to
unauthorized activities?
• A) Preventive control
• B) Detective control
• C) Corrective control
• Answer: B) Detective control
, • Explanation: Detective controls are designed to identify and alert on unauthorized activities,
allowing for timely responses to security incidents.
6. What is a common consequence of a data breach?
• A) Decreased operational efficiency
• B) Improved customer trust
• C) Increased system performance
• Answer: A) Decreased operational efficiency
• Explanation: A data breach can lead to significant operational disruptions, loss of customer
trust, and legal consequences, negatively impacting efficiency.
7. Which of the following tools is primarily used for monitoring network traffic?
• A) SIEM
• B) VPN
• C) WAF
• Answer: A) SIEM
• Explanation: Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems aggregate and
analyze log data from various sources, including network traffic, for security monitoring.
8. What does the term "end-of-life" (EOL) mean in software management?
• A) The point at which a software product is no longer supported by the vendor
• B) The time when software reaches its maximum performance
• C) The phase of active development for software
• Answer: A) The point at which a software product is no longer supported by the vendor
• Explanation: End-of-life indicates that a product will no longer receive updates or support,
posing security risks if used.
9. What is the primary objective of implementing a Security Information and
Event Management (SIEM) system?
• A) To provide antivirus protection
• B) To centralize log data and improve incident response
• C) To replace firewalls
• Answer: B) To centralize log data and improve incident response
• Explanation: SIEM systems collect and analyze security data from across the organization to
provide insights and facilitate faster incident response.
10. Which of the following is an example of social engineering?
• A) A software vulnerability exploit
• B) Phishing emails
• C) Malware installation
• Answer: B) Phishing emails
1. Which of the following best defines a "false positive" in security monitoring?
• A) A legitimate threat that is identified as benign
• B) An alert indicating a threat that does not exist
• C) A successful breach of security
• Answer: B) An alert indicating a threat that does not exist
• Explanation: A false positive occurs when a security system incorrectly identifies benign activity
as malicious, leading to unnecessary investigations.
2. What is the primary purpose of a vulnerability assessment?
• A) To develop new security policies
• B) To identify and prioritize vulnerabilities in a system
• C) To encrypt sensitive data
• Answer: B) To identify and prioritize vulnerabilities in a system
• Explanation: Vulnerability assessments focus on identifying weaknesses in systems and
prioritizing them based on risk levels for remediation.
3. Which of the following describes a "sandbox" in cybersecurity?
• A) A method of data encryption
• B) A testing environment for untrusted programs
• C) A firewall configuration
• Answer: B) A testing environment for untrusted programs
• Explanation: A sandbox is an isolated environment where untrusted code can be executed
without affecting the main system, allowing for safe testing.
4. What is the role of a security operations analyst?
• A) To develop software
• B) To monitor, detect, and respond to security incidents
• C) To manage corporate budgets
• Answer: B) To monitor, detect, and respond to security incidents
• Explanation: Security operations analysts are responsible for analyzing security alerts and
incidents to mitigate threats and enhance the organization's security posture.
5. Which type of security control focuses on detecting and alerting to
unauthorized activities?
• A) Preventive control
• B) Detective control
• C) Corrective control
• Answer: B) Detective control
, • Explanation: Detective controls are designed to identify and alert on unauthorized activities,
allowing for timely responses to security incidents.
6. What is a common consequence of a data breach?
• A) Decreased operational efficiency
• B) Improved customer trust
• C) Increased system performance
• Answer: A) Decreased operational efficiency
• Explanation: A data breach can lead to significant operational disruptions, loss of customer
trust, and legal consequences, negatively impacting efficiency.
7. Which of the following tools is primarily used for monitoring network traffic?
• A) SIEM
• B) VPN
• C) WAF
• Answer: A) SIEM
• Explanation: Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems aggregate and
analyze log data from various sources, including network traffic, for security monitoring.
8. What does the term "end-of-life" (EOL) mean in software management?
• A) The point at which a software product is no longer supported by the vendor
• B) The time when software reaches its maximum performance
• C) The phase of active development for software
• Answer: A) The point at which a software product is no longer supported by the vendor
• Explanation: End-of-life indicates that a product will no longer receive updates or support,
posing security risks if used.
9. What is the primary objective of implementing a Security Information and
Event Management (SIEM) system?
• A) To provide antivirus protection
• B) To centralize log data and improve incident response
• C) To replace firewalls
• Answer: B) To centralize log data and improve incident response
• Explanation: SIEM systems collect and analyze security data from across the organization to
provide insights and facilitate faster incident response.
10. Which of the following is an example of social engineering?
• A) A software vulnerability exploit
• B) Phishing emails
• C) Malware installation
• Answer: B) Phishing emails
