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Clinical Medicine Final Exam With Questions And 100% SURE ANSWERS
Terms in this set (273)
When discussing ischemic heart disease, which B
of the following statements is TRUE?
A: Vasodilation of the coronary arteries may lead
to ischemia of the myocardium.
B: Occlusion can be caused by the presence of a
large intraluminal atherosclerotic plaque.
C: Angina often arises during periods of
decreased myocardial demand.
D: Commonly reported symptoms include
seizures, hyperglycemia and wheezing.
Clinical Medicine Final Exam
1/29
,The correct response when managing a patient A
with dental pain who presents with a heart rate
of 106 and a blood pressure of 165/101 would
include:
A: recheck the patient's vital signs ensuring the
use of a properly sized blood pressure cuff.
B: anesthetize the patient using 2% lidocaine w/
1:100,000 epinephrine and determine if the vitals
normalize afterwards.
C: have the patient take a double dose of their
antihypertensive medication.
D: proceed with elective dental treatment, as
long as it is not extremely invasive and
stimulating.
Which of the following correctly matches the C
antihypertensive medication and the associated
fact?
A: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic and
has strong diuretic activity and causes
hypokalemia.
B: Metoprolol is a nonselective beta antagonist
(blocker) and acts on β1 and β2 receptors.
C: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril prevent the
production of angiotensin II.
D: Calcium channel blockers all have activity on
vascular smooth muscle and the heart.
Clinical Medicine Final Exam
2/29
, 10/23/24, 2:56 PM
Which of the following statements is TRUE D
regarding hypotension?
A: Orthostatic hypotension occurs when
progressive blood loss leads to impaired
systemic perfusion.
B: Vasovagal syncope is common and should be
managed initially by sitting the patient upright.
C: Pregnant patients in the 3rd trimester should
be placed in the lateral decubitus position to
prevent compression of the ascending aorta.
D: Hypotension can result from non-neurogenic
causes such as aortic stenosis or congestive
heart failure.
When discussing acute coronary syndromes, all C
of the following are true EXCEPT one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A: The goals of managing a suspected ACS
patient include minimizing damage to the
myocardium.
B: Immediate medical interventions may include
thrombolytic therapy.
C: Routine dental care is contraindicated for at
least one year following an STEMI.
D: The ADA recommendations for a patient post-
ACS include a maximum dose of .04 mg
epinephrine per visit.
All of the following answers correctly pair the D
component of the cardiovascular system with
the appropriate function EXCEPT?
A: Blood vessels = conduits for fluid flow
B: Heart = pump to drive fluid
C: Kidneys = regulates systemic pressure and
fluid volume
D: Blood = fluid responsible for transporting
oxygen only
Clinical Medicine Final Exam
3/29
Clinical Medicine Final Exam With Questions And 100% SURE ANSWERS
Terms in this set (273)
When discussing ischemic heart disease, which B
of the following statements is TRUE?
A: Vasodilation of the coronary arteries may lead
to ischemia of the myocardium.
B: Occlusion can be caused by the presence of a
large intraluminal atherosclerotic plaque.
C: Angina often arises during periods of
decreased myocardial demand.
D: Commonly reported symptoms include
seizures, hyperglycemia and wheezing.
Clinical Medicine Final Exam
1/29
,The correct response when managing a patient A
with dental pain who presents with a heart rate
of 106 and a blood pressure of 165/101 would
include:
A: recheck the patient's vital signs ensuring the
use of a properly sized blood pressure cuff.
B: anesthetize the patient using 2% lidocaine w/
1:100,000 epinephrine and determine if the vitals
normalize afterwards.
C: have the patient take a double dose of their
antihypertensive medication.
D: proceed with elective dental treatment, as
long as it is not extremely invasive and
stimulating.
Which of the following correctly matches the C
antihypertensive medication and the associated
fact?
A: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic and
has strong diuretic activity and causes
hypokalemia.
B: Metoprolol is a nonselective beta antagonist
(blocker) and acts on β1 and β2 receptors.
C: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril prevent the
production of angiotensin II.
D: Calcium channel blockers all have activity on
vascular smooth muscle and the heart.
Clinical Medicine Final Exam
2/29
, 10/23/24, 2:56 PM
Which of the following statements is TRUE D
regarding hypotension?
A: Orthostatic hypotension occurs when
progressive blood loss leads to impaired
systemic perfusion.
B: Vasovagal syncope is common and should be
managed initially by sitting the patient upright.
C: Pregnant patients in the 3rd trimester should
be placed in the lateral decubitus position to
prevent compression of the ascending aorta.
D: Hypotension can result from non-neurogenic
causes such as aortic stenosis or congestive
heart failure.
When discussing acute coronary syndromes, all C
of the following are true EXCEPT one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A: The goals of managing a suspected ACS
patient include minimizing damage to the
myocardium.
B: Immediate medical interventions may include
thrombolytic therapy.
C: Routine dental care is contraindicated for at
least one year following an STEMI.
D: The ADA recommendations for a patient post-
ACS include a maximum dose of .04 mg
epinephrine per visit.
All of the following answers correctly pair the D
component of the cardiovascular system with
the appropriate function EXCEPT?
A: Blood vessels = conduits for fluid flow
B: Heart = pump to drive fluid
C: Kidneys = regulates systemic pressure and
fluid volume
D: Blood = fluid responsible for transporting
oxygen only
Clinical Medicine Final Exam
3/29
